FBO mains paper is a multiple-choice question paper covering a range of topics in Science and Mathematics.Science Highlights:The function of the glass sheet on a solar cooker is similar to the Greenhouse effect.Biogas production occurs in the absence of Oxygen.Petroleum and natural gas are fossil fuels, but coal cannot be prepared in the laboratory from dead organisms.A substance with an ignition temperature of 95 °C (P) or 98 °C (Q) will catch fire at 100 °C.The wastes discharged from a biogas plant are reused as fertilizers for crops.In electro refining of copper, pure copper from the electrolytic solution deposits at the cathode.The thermite process, used to weld railway tracks, involves a reaction between iron oxide and aluminium.In the Haber's process, X=1 mole of nitrogen reacts with Y=3 moles of hydrogen to form Z=2 moles of ammonia.The catalyst used in the hydrogenation of vegetable oils is Nickel.Vinegar bottles freeze in cold regions because pure ethanoic acid has a high melting point.A spacecraft cannot burn on the moon because the moon has no atmosphere containing oxygen.A lunar eclipse demonstration using a flashlight (Sun), a basketball (Earth), and a tennis ball (Moon) would arrange them as: Flashlight >>> Basketball >>>> Tennisball.Comet is a member of the solar system.The Ptolemaic theory considered the Earth to be the center of the universe.India's first satellite launched exclusively for meteorology is KALPANA-1.If the Earth's axial tilt increased from 23.5 degrees to 30 degrees, the most significant climate effect would be intensified seasonal variations.If the sun were suddenly replaced by a black hole of equal mass, Earth's orbit would remain nearly the same initially.The color of stars indicates its Temperature.Atlantis is not correctly matched as a Space station (it is a Space shuttle).Remote sensing technology helps satellites provide Real-Time images for disaster management.Nutrients that help in building the body are Proteins.Oxygen is not required for photosynthesis.The gland that releases HCl in the human digestive tract is the Gastric glands.Organisms that undergo cutaneous respiration are the Frog and earthworm.Plants with aerial roots are Mangrove plants.The central metal in Hemoglobin is Iron, and in Chlorophyll is Magnesium.The largest artery in the human body is the Aorta.The tissue that helps in the transport of water in plants is Xylem.The part of the brain that controls involuntary actions such as blood pressure and vomiting is the Medulla oblongata.The gland that secretes insulin is the Pancreas.The basic unit of heredity is the Genes.The disposal of solid waste is a significant cause of land pollution.Sulphur dioxide is responsible for acid rain.Mathematics Highlights:A problem asks for the HCF and LCM of two numbers, with one number between 200 and 300, and the difference of the two numbers is required.A problem involves finding a fraction based on conditions related to adding a number to the numerator and denominator.An age problem asks for the ratio of the present ages of a father and son.A profit percent problem involves a shopkeeper marking a price 30% above the cost price and allowing a discount of Rs. 31.20 on a bill of Rs. 312.The greatest 3-digit number leaving a remainder of 1 when divided by 2, 3, 4, 5, and 6 is asked.A time and work problem involves P being thrice as good as Q and finishing the work 60 days less than Q, asking for the time they take together.A problem asks for the average speed given distances covered by bus at 16 km/hr and returning by cycle at 9 km/hr.A Venn diagram question asks for the number of students who like to read books or play sports.A question involves finding the correct roots of a quadratic equation ax^{2}+bx+c=0 given wrong roots from using wrong b and wrong c values.A geometry problem involves finding the area of triangle PQR given the area of triangle QTS and ratios of segments on the sides.A trigonometry problem asks for the angle the sun makes with the ground when a 6 m flag staff on a tower throws a shadow of 2sqrt{3} m.A data interpretation problem involves finding the average marks obtained by a class in an examination, given question-wise data on correct, wrong, and unattempted answers.A statistics problem asks for the median salary of 100 employees with different income groups.A bar chart problem asks for the percentage of candidates who applied for Company B compared to Company A over six years.A combined bar chart and pie chart problem asks for the total number of males in companies A and C, given the total number of employees and percentage breakdowns.
FBO Exam Paper 1 is a multiple-choice question paper (GS/M/TOBAF/500) covering a wide range of topics, including environmental science, disaster management, current affairs, Indian history, geography, biology, economics, constitution, and reasoning.Key Information from the Document:Environmental Science & Sustainable Development:The largest contributor to environmental pollution is Industry.The concept of 'carbon footprint' refers to the total amount of greenhouse gases emitted by human activities.Carbon monoxide (CO) is the gas primarily responsible for air pollution.Carbon dioxide ($CO_{2}$) is the gas that traps heat and contributes most to the greenhouse effect.Global warming is primarily caused by an increase in greenhouse gases.The 1992 United Nations Conference on Environment and Development (UNCED) is known as the Earth Summit.The Brundtland Commission (1987) first clearly explained the idea of Sustainable Development.The United Nations adopted 17 Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) in 2015.Planting trees and reducing plastic use support Environmental sustainability.The 'green economy' focuses on fostering green industries and creating green jobs.The Montreal Protocol focuses on protecting the ozone layer.The ozone layer acts as earth's shield, absorbing harmful ultraviolet radiation from the sun.Sustainable practice in agriculture includes crop rotation and organic farming.Disaster Management:Disaster Management means reducing the impact of disasters.Disaster response in India is managed by NDMA (National Disaster Management Authority).Hurricanes are measured using the Saffir-Simpson scale.Conducting mock drills is important for disaster preparedness at schools.Tsunamis affecting India mostly originate from the Indian Ocean.Cyclones form over Oceans, and Andhra Pradesh is the state most prone to cyclones.Earthquakes are measured by a Seismograph.The Bhopal Gas Tragedy was caused by a Gas leakage.Indian Polity & History:The 42nd Amendment added the words 'Socialist' and 'Secular' to the Preamble.The President appoints the Chief Justice of India.The collective responsibility of the Council of Ministers indicates a Parliamentary System of Government.The President can proclaim a National Emergency under Article 352.The Right to Equality is guaranteed by Article 14.The 8th Schedule contains the list of official languages.The 24th Jain Thirthankara was Vardhamana Mahavira.Alexander marched to India in 326 BC through the Khyber pass.The official language of the Satavahanas was Prakrit.Rajatarangini was composed by Kalhana.The Kailasa Temple at Ellora was carved during the reign of Krishna I.Megasthenes was the foreign ambassador who visited the Mauryan court.A common feature of Rajput War strategy was direct combat with emphasis on personal valor.Avesta was written in the Iranian language.Harihara and Bukka belonged to the Sangama Dynasty.Geography & Economy:The longest National Highway passing through Andhra Pradesh is NH 16 (Chennai-Kolkata).The Deccan Plateau is mostly composed of Basalt rock.Black soil is best suited for cotton cultivation in India.Anamudi is the highest peak in South India.The Eastern Ghats in Andhra Pradesh are mostly discontinuous and eroded hills.Chilika Lake, Asia's largest brackish water lagoon, is located in Odisha.Gujarat has the longest Coastline in India.Andhra Bank was merged into Union Bank of India.The Indian rupee sign came into effect in July 2010.Primary Deficit is calculated as Fiscal Deficit - Interest Payments.The Indian Financial System Code (IFSC) has a total of 11 letters and digits.Science & Other:Vitamin 'A' deficiency causes vision loss and blindness.The main function of nucleic acids is the storage and expression of genetic information.The main function of kidneys is to filter waste products and excess water from the blood.Photosynthesis is the process for plants to make their own food.Mitochondria is called the power house of the cell.A gene is a hereditary unit.Vermicompost is manure made by earthworms converting organic waste.White revolution means to increase the production of milk in India.Wind is a renewable source of energy.
A question paper for the Multi-Tasking Non-Technical Staff and Havildar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024. The exam date was 23/10/2024, Shift 3.The paper is divided into three main sections:Numerical and Mathematical Ability: This section includes 20 questions (Q.1 to Q.20) covering topics such as average expenditure and income, speed and distance, age ratio, train problems, geometry (equilateral triangle and regular hexagon), income averages, corrected averages, profit and loss, simple interest, mixture and allegation, HCF and LCM, volume and melting, data interpretation via bar graph, discount, ratio of boys and girls, and data interpretation via a table of employees.Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving: This section contains 20 questions (Q.1 to Q.20) on topics like interchanging mathematical signs, coding-decoding, circular seating arrangement, mirror image, number sets analogy, figure series, syllogism (statements and conclusions), number series, figure completion, and English alphabetical series.General Awareness: This section includes 25 questions (Q.1 to Q.25) on diverse topics such as the Pharmacy (Amendment) Bill, 2023, Losar celebration, classical dance (Mohiniyattam performer Kanak Rele), historical acts (Government of India Act of 1919), climate zones, founders of dynasties (Mauryan), political figures (Shafiqur Rahman Barq), books by Dadabhai Naoroji, literature (The Glory of Patan), historical dates (Punjab abolishing Legislative Council), chemical compounds (curcumin in turmeric, sodium bicarbonate), music gharanas (Indore gharana founder), architecture (Pietra Dura), agriculture (Rabi season), economics (capital goods), awards (Padma Puraskars order), history (Vijayanagara kingdom dynasty), science (lycopene in tomatoes), census data (minimum literacy rate in UT), Indian Constitution (Fundamental Duties), sports (Sanjana Bathula, Women's Premier League captain), geography (Mawsynram), and international borders (India's neighbors).English Language and Comprehension: This section contains 25 questions (Q.1 to Q.25) covering spelling errors, synonyms (Ecstatic, pursue, gruelling, Energy, discern), phrasal verb errors, idiom meaning (read between the lines, a piece of cake), grammatical errors, fill in the blanks (vocabulary and parts of speech), and a five-question cloze test comprehension passage.
A question paper for the Multi-Tasking Non-Technical Staff and Havildar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024. The exam date was 23/10/2024, Shift 2. The exam time was from 12:30 PM to 2:30 PM.The paper is divided into three main sections:Numerical and Mathematical Ability: This section includes 20 questions (Q.1 to Q.20) covering topics such as average expenditure and income, speed and distance, age ratio, train problems, geometry (equilateral triangle and regular hexagon), income averages, corrected averages, profit and loss, simple interest, mixture and allegation, HCF and LCM, volume and melting, data interpretation via bar graph, discount, ratio of boys and girls, and data interpretation via a table of employees.Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving: This section contains 20 questions (Q.1 to Q.20) on topics like interchanging mathematical signs, coding-decoding, circular seating arrangement, mirror image, number sets analogy, figure series, syllogism (statements and conclusions), number series, figure completion, and English alphabetical series.General Awareness: This section includes 25 questions (Q.1 to Q.25) on diverse topics such as the Pharmacy (Amendment) Bill, 2023, Losar celebration, classical dance (Mohiniyattam performer Kanak Rele), historical acts (Government of India Act of 1919), climate zones, founders of dynasties (Mauryan), political figures (Shafiqur Rahman Barq), books by Dadabhai Naoroji, literature (The Glory of Patan), historical dates (Punjab abolishing Legislative Council), chemical compounds (curcumin in turmeric, sodium bicarbonate), music gharanas (Indore gharana founder), architecture (Pietra Dura), agriculture (Rabi season), economics (capital goods), awards (Padma Puraskars order), history (Vijayanagara kingdom dynasty), science (lycopene in tomatoes), census data (minimum literacy rate in UT), Indian Constitution (Fundamental Duties), sports (Sanjana Bathula, Women's Premier League captain), geography (Mawsynram), and international borders (India's neighbors).English Language and Comprehension: This section contains 25 questions (Q.1 to Q.25) covering spelling errors, synonyms (Ecstatic, pursue, gruelling, Energy, discern), phrasal verb errors, idiom meaning (read between the lines, a piece of cake), grammatical errors, fill in the blanks (vocabulary and parts of speech), and a five-question cloze test comprehension passage.
A question paper for the Multi-Tasking Non-Technical Staff and Havildar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024. The exam date was 23/10/2024, Shift 1. The exam time was from 9:00 AM to 11:00 AM.The paper is divided into three main sections:Numerical and Mathematical Ability: This section includes 20 questions (Q.1 to Q.20) covering topics such as average expenditure and income, speed and distance, age ratio, train problems, geometry (equilateral triangle and regular hexagon), income averages, corrected averages, profit and loss, simple interest, mixture and allegation, HCF and LCM, volume and melting, data interpretation via bar graph, discount, ratio of boys and girls, and data interpretation via a table of employees.Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving: This section contains 20 questions (Q.1 to Q.20) on topics like interchanging mathematical signs, coding-decoding, circular seating arrangement, mirror image, number sets analogy, figure series, syllogism (statements and conclusions), number series, figure completion, and English alphabetical series.General Awareness: This section includes 25 questions (Q.1 to Q.25) on diverse topics such as the Pharmacy (Amendment) Bill, 2023, Losar celebration, classical dance (Mohiniyattam performer Kanak Rele), historical acts (Government of India Act of 1919), climate zones, founders of dynasties (Mauryan), political figures (Shafiqur Rahman Barq), books by Dadabhai Naoroji, literature (The Glory of Patan), historical dates (Punjab abolishing Legislative Council), chemical compounds (curcumin in turmeric, sodium bicarbonate), music gharanas (Indore gharana founder), architecture (Pietra Dura), agriculture (Rabi season), economics (capital goods), awards (Padma Puraskars order), history (Vijayanagara kingdom dynasty), science (lycopene in tomatoes), census data (minimum literacy rate in UT), Indian Constitution (Fundamental Duties), sports (Sanjana Bathula, Women's Premier League captain), geography (Mawsynram), and international borders (India's neighbors).English Language and Comprehension: This section contains 25 questions (Q.1 to Q.25) covering spelling errors, synonyms (Ecstatic, pursue, gruelling, Energy, discern), phrasal verb errors, idiom meaning (read between the lines, a piece of cake), grammatical errors, fill in the blanks (vocabulary and parts of speech), and a five-question cloze test comprehension passage.
A question paper for the Multi-Tasking Non-Technical Staff and Havildar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024. The exam date was 22/10/2024, Shift 3. The paper is divided into three main sections:Numerical and Mathematical Ability: This section includes 20 questions (Q.1 to Q.20) covering topics such as average expenditure and income, speed and distance, age ratio, train problems, geometry (equilateral triangle and regular hexagon), income averages, corrected averages, profit and loss, simple interest, mixture and allegation, HCF and LCM, volume and melting, data interpretation via bar graph, discount, ratio of boys and girls, and data interpretation via a table of employees.Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving: This section contains 20 questions (Q.1 to Q.20) on topics like interchanging mathematical signs, coding-decoding, circular seating arrangement, mirror image, number sets analogy, figure series, syllogism (statements and conclusions), number series, figure completion, and English alphabetical series.General Awareness: This section includes 25 questions (Q.1 to Q.25) on diverse topics such as the Pharmacy (Amendment) Bill, 2023, Losar celebration, classical dance (Mohiniyattam performer Kanak Rele), historical acts (Government of India Act of 1919), climate zones, founders of dynasties (Mauryan), political figures (Shafiqur Rahman Barq), books by Dadabhai Naoroji, literature (The Glory of Patan), historical dates (Punjab abolishing Legislative Council), chemical compounds (curcumin in turmeric, sodium bicarbonate), music gharanas (Indore gharana founder), architecture (Pietra Dura), agriculture (Rabi season), economics (capital goods), awards (Padma Puraskars order), history (Vijayanagara kingdom dynasty), science (lycopene in tomatoes), census data (minimum literacy rate in UT), Indian Constitution (Fundamental Duties), sports (Sanjana Bathula, Women's Premier League captain), geography (Mawsynram), and international borders (India's neighbors).English Language and Comprehension: This section contains 25 questions (Q.1 to Q.25) covering spelling errors, synonyms (Ecstatic, pursue, gruelling, Energy, discern), phrasal verb errors, idiom meaning (read between the lines, a piece of cake), grammatical errors, fill in the blanks (vocabulary and parts of speech), and a five-question cloze test comprehension passage.
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI), as the cornerstone of the nation’s financial architecture, maintains an organizational structure that necessitates a robust and diversely skilled workforce. Beyond the high-level policy analysts and economic researchers, the functional integrity of the Bank relies heavily on its support staff. The announcement of the 2026 recruitment for the post of Office Attendant, focusing on the Panel Year 2025, represents a significant institutional effort to revitalize its Group C cadre across 14 regional offices. This recruitment drive, involving 572 vacancies, is designed to integrate individuals who possess a fundamental secondary education while ensuring they are deeply rooted in the linguistic and cultural contexts of the regions they serve. This analysis examines the multi-faceted requirements, procedural protocols, and strategic implications of this recruitment cycle within the broader context of public sector employment in India. Institutional Context and Job Requirement OverviewThe role of an Office Attendant within the Reserve Bank of India is characterized as a Class IV or Group C position, providing foundational support to the Bank's diverse departments. While the designation might imply a purely manual scope of work, the modern RBI Office Attendant operates as a critical administrative auxiliary. The primary mandate of this role is to facilitate the seamless movement of documents, maintain the sanctity and organization of official records, and assist senior officers - including Grade A and Grade B executives - in their day-to-day operational requirements. The daily responsibilities are geographically and departmentally specific but generally encompass several core functions. Attendants are responsible for the physical dispensation of files and dak (mail), ensuring that internal communication channels remain efficient. They manage the opening and closing of office premises, a task that involves a high degree of trust and adherence to security protocols. Furthermore, they handle routine office tasks such as photocopying, document sorting, and assisting in the logistical arrangements for official meetings and conferences. In an institution as rigorous as the RBI, the role demands a high level of discipline, punctuality, and an understanding of the Bank's internal hierarchy. From a fiscal perspective, the position is highly sought after due to the competitive compensation package offered by the Bank. The initial gross salary is approximately ₹46,029/- per month, which includes a starting basic pay of ₹24,250/- along with various allowances. This remuneration level, combined with the job security inherent in the central bank of India, makes it one of the most attractive opportunities for individuals who have completed their 10th-standard education but are prohibited from being graduates at the time of application. Chronology of the Recruitment CycleThe 2026 recruitment cycle follows a compressed timeline, reflecting the RBI's transition toward more efficient, technology-driven hiring processes. The formal notification was disseminated on January 15, 2026, marking the immediate opening of the online application window. This timeline requires candidates to demonstrate a high degree of readiness, as the gap between the application deadline and the tentative examination dates is less than one month. Event DescriptionKey Dates for the 2026 CycleRelease of Official Recruitment NotificationJanuary 15, 2026Opening of Online Registration and ApplicationJanuary 15, 2026Closing Date for Online Application SubmissionFebruary 04, 2026Deadline for Payment of Online Examination FeesFebruary 04, 2026Modification/Editing of Application DetailsFebruary 04, 2026Tentative Release of Online Examination Call LettersFebruary 2026Scheduled Dates for Online Computer-Based TestFebruary 28 & March 01, 2026Expected Declaration of Written ResultsMarch/April 2026Commencement of Language Proficiency Test (LPT)To be announced post-resultThe efficiency of this schedule indicates the Bank’s intent to minimize the duration of the recruitment panel's formation, ensuring that operational vacancies in regional offices are filled promptly to maintain institutional productivity. Fiscal and Administrative Parameters: Application FeesThe application fee structure is designed to facilitate the administrative costs of a nationwide online examination while providing social equity through mandated concessions. The RBI utilizes a tiered system based on the candidate's social category. CategoryFee ComponentsTotal Amount PayableGeneral / OBC / EWS CandidatesExamination Fee + Intimation Charges₹450/- (+ 18% GST Extra)SC / ST / PwBD / EXS CandidatesIntimation Charges Only₹50/- (+ 18% GST Extra)Staff Candidates (RBI Employees)N/AExemptedIt is essential for applicants to note that the 18% Goods and Services Tax (GST) is levied over and above the base fee, a common practice in digital financial transactions initiated by public sector entities. The payment must be remitted exclusively through online channels, reflecting the Bank’s commitment to the Digital India initiative. Accepted modes include major credit and debit cards, internet banking portals, and Unified Payments Interface (UPI) systems. Demographic Benchmarking: Age Limitations and RelaxationsThe RBI establishes age criteria to ensure a long-term service commitment while providing employment opportunities to the younger segment of the population. As of the reference date of January 01, 2026, candidates must be between the ages of 18 and 25 years. Core Age EligibilityThis age bracket signifies that a candidate must have been born no earlier than January 02, 2001, and no later than January 01, 2008. Both dates are inclusive in this calculation. Strategic Age RelaxationsTo ensure social inclusivity and acknowledge the diverse backgrounds of the Indian populace, the Bank provides upper age limit relaxations in accordance with central government guidelines. CategoryMaximum Age RelaxationFinal Upper Age LimitScheduled Caste (SC) / Scheduled Tribe (ST)5 Years30 YearsOther Backward Classes (OBC - Non-Creamy Layer)3 Years28 YearsPersons with Benchmark Disabilities (PwBD)10 Years (Gen), 13 Years (OBC), 15 (SC/ST)35 to 40 YearsEx-Servicemen (EXS)Service period + 3 years50 Years (Maximum)Widows / Divorced Women / Separated (not remarried)10 Years35 Years (40 for SC/ST)Candidates with prior RBI ExperienceActual years of experience3 Years (Maximum)The provision for women who are widowed or divorced serves as a social safety net, providing a pathway to economic independence for those in vulnerable domestic situations. Similarly, the relaxation for ex-servicemen recognizes their prior contribution to national security, facilitating their transition into civilian administrative roles. Educational and Jurisdictional EligibilityThe eligibility criteria for the Office Attendant post are unique in their restrictive nature regarding higher education. While the Bank requires a minimum qualification, it strictly prohibits over-qualified candidates from participating in this specific recruitment tier. The Minimum and Maximum Academic ThresholdCandidates must have successfully completed their 10th standard (SSC/Matriculation) from a recognized Board or Institute. However, a critical caveat of this recruitment is that the candidate must be an undergraduate as of January 01, 2026. Graduates or those possessing higher degrees are explicitly barred from applying. This "undergraduate rule" is a deliberate organizational strategy to prevent high turnover rates and ensure that the role is filled by individuals for whom this entry-level position represents a primary career opportunity rather than a temporary stopgap. Jurisdictional and Domicile ComplianceBeyond academic credentials, the recruitment is strictly regional. A candidate must have passed the 10th standard from a school located within the regional jurisdiction of the recruiting office to which they are applying. Furthermore, the applicant must be a domicile of the State or Union Territory that falls under the jurisdiction of that specific recruitment office. This ensures that the staff is locally accessible and minimizes logistical challenges related to relocation for the Bank’s Group C workforce. Linguistic ProficiencyOperational efficiency in regional offices requires staff who can communicate fluently with local visitors and handle documents in regional scripts. Therefore, candidates must be proficient—meaning they can read, write, speak, and understand—the local language of the state or region for which they are applying. Spatial Distribution of Workforce: Detailed Vacancy AssessmentThe 572 vacancies are distributed across 14 major urban centers, reflecting the varying administrative scales of the RBI’s regional operations. The distribution is further categorized to satisfy the reservation quotas for various social groups. Recruiting OfficeSCSTOBCEWSGEN/URTotalPwBD (A/B/C/D)EX-IEX-IIAhmedabad081218291/1/0/015Bengaluru30517161/0/1/003Bhopal0300140/1/0/100Bhubaneswar684315360/0/2/016Chandigarh1000120/0/0/000Chennai0080190/0/0/000Guwahati2159521520/0/1/2210Hyderabad330327361/1/0/116Jaipur855420422/0/0/118Kanpur & Lucknow3301912611252/1/1/2525Kolkata23121936900/1/1/1418Mumbai0110319330/3/2/116New Delhi4011640611/2/1/0212Patna640324370/0/1/317National Total895883512915728/10/10/1219106The high vacancy counts in offices like Kanpur & Lucknow (125) and Kolkata (90) suggest a higher rate of historical vacancies or larger operational footprints in these regions. For ex-servicemen, the vacancies are split into two categories: EX-I (those with a disability resulting from military service) and EX-II (general ex-servicemen). Methodological Approach to SelectionThe RBI selection process for Office Attendants is a dual-tier mechanism that prioritizes cognitive aptitude and regional linguistic competence over complex technical knowledge. Significantly, there is no interview phase, ensuring a meritocratic selection based purely on test scores. Phase I: Online Objective TestThe primary filter is a computer-based test comprising four equal sections. Candidates are allotted a composite time of 90 minutes to solve 120 questions. Reasoning (30 Qs): Designed to test logical deduction, pattern recognition, and decision-making capabilities. General English (30 Qs): Evaluates fundamental grammar, vocabulary, and basic comprehension. This is the only section that is not bilingual. General Awareness (30 Qs): Focuses on national events, banking terminology, and static knowledge. Numerical Ability (30 Qs): Assesses basic arithmetic speed and accuracy, equivalent to a 10th-standard difficulty level. The marking scheme incorporates a penalty for guesswork: 0.25 marks are deducted for every wrong answer. Candidates must secure a minimum qualifying mark in each section and a cumulative total higher than the state-wise cut-off. Phase II: Language Proficiency Test (LPT)Candidates provisionally shortlisted from the online test must undergo a test in the regional language of the office they applied to. This test is qualifying in nature. Despite its qualifying status, failure to meet the LPT standards results in automatic disqualification, irrespective of the score achieved in the written exam. The test format typically involves reading a local newspaper, writing a short passage, and speaking in the language to a panel to confirm proficiency. Subject-Wise Syllabus AnalysisPreparing for the RBI Office Attendant exam requires a focus on high-yield topics that appear frequently in banking recruitment for Group C posts. Detailed Reasoning SyllabusThe reasoning section is intended to evaluate mental agility. Key topics include:Seating Arrangement: Linear (single and double row) and circular (facing in/out). Puzzles: Floor puzzles, box puzzles, and scheduling tasks. Logical Deductions: Syllogism (Only/A Few concepts), Inequality (coded and direct), and Coding-Decoding. Miscellaneous: Blood Relations (family trees), Direction Sense, and Alphanumeric Series. Numerical Ability SyllabusSpeed is the decisive factor in this section. Candidates should master:Calculative Basics: Simplification and Approximation, and Number Series (missing and wrong numbers). Arithmetic: Percentages, Ratio and Proportion, Average, Profit and Loss, and Simple/Compound Interest. Work and Motion: Time and Work, Pipe and Cistern, and Time-Speed-Distance. Data Interpretation: Basic Tabular or Bar graphs. General English SyllabusFocusing on the 10th-standard level:Reading Comprehension: Short story or fact-based passages with 5-7 questions. Sentence Refinement: Error Detection (based on Subject-Verb Agreement, Prepositions, and Articles) and Sentence Improvement. Vocabulary: Fill in the blanks (Single fillers) and Cloze Test. General Awareness SyllabusThis is a vast section where consistency is key:Banking Awareness: History of RBI, its subsidiary bodies (DICGC, BRBNMPL), and basic terms like Repo Rate and CRR. Current Affairs: Appointments, Awards, Sports, and International Summits from the previous 6 months. Static GK: National Parks, Wildlife Sanctuaries, Power Plants, and Currencies of neighboring countries. Historical Performance Benchmarks: Previous Year Cut-off AnalysisThe 2021 recruitment cycle serves as the most relevant benchmark for the 2026 examination. The cut-off marks are released office-wise and category-wise, reflecting the competitive density of each region. Regional OfficeGeneral/UROBCSCSTEWSAhmedabad96.581.75-8175.5Bengaluru83.75-83.75-67Bhopal & Raipur105.75--82103.25Bhubaneswar105.75103.5104.7585.7598.75Chandigarh110104103-104.5Chennai9289--71Guwahati & NE92.588.25-88.563.25Hyderabad103.25102.7599.75100.7597.75Jaipur108.25105.5-101.25104.5Kanpur & Lucknow111.25104.25--108Kolkata106102.5103.75-98.5Mumbai92.7586.25-85.2579New Delhi105102.75--100.5Patna & Ranchi110.25108--109The data indicates that candidates in regions like North India (Chandigarh, Jaipur, Kanpur/Lucknow) must target scores in excess of 110 out of 120 due to the immense volume of applicants in the Hindi heartland. Conversely, regions with specific local languages like Mumbai (Marathi/Konkani) or Guwahati (Assamese/Khasi/Manipuri) show slightly more accessible cut-offs, highlighting the strategic importance of the LPT as a filter. Compliance and Documentation StandardsThe RBI employs a sophisticated online application portal that requires precise digital compliance. Candidates must ensure that their uploaded documents meet the following specifications to avoid technical rejection. Digital Imaging SpecificationsPhotograph: Recent passport-size color photograph (4.5 cm x 3.5 cm) on a light background. File size must be between 20 KB and 50 KB. Signature: Must be on white paper with a black ink pen. Signatures in capital letters are strictly prohibited. File size: 10 KB to 20 KB. Left Thumb Impression: On white paper with blue or black ink. File size: 20 KB to 50 KB. Handwritten Declaration: Must be written in English on white paper with black ink. The text must be: “I, _______ (Name of the candidate), hereby declare that all the information submitted by me in the application form is correct, true and valid. I will present the supporting documents as and when required.” File size: 50 KB to 100 KB. Candidates must also be prepared to present original valid ID proof (Aadhar Card, PAN Card, Voter ID, etc.) along with the call letter at the time of the examination. Directives and General InstructionsThe Bank enforces several non-negotiable instructions to maintain the sanctity of the recruitment drive.Singularity of Application: A candidate is permitted to apply to only one RBI office. Submitting multiple applications will lead to the rejection of all applications or the acceptance of only the most recent one (without fee refund for previous ones). Exam Center Jurisdictions: Candidates must choose an examination center within the same state where the recruiting office is located. For example, a candidate applying for the Mumbai office cannot choose an exam center in New Delhi. Over-Qualification Penalty: The "undergraduate" status is a mandatory condition. If at any stage - even after joining - it is discovered that a candidate was a graduate at the time of application, their appointment will be terminated immediately. Biometric Verification: The Bank may capture biometric data (thumb impression or iris scan) at the examination venue to prevent impersonation. Procedural Roadmap: How to ApplyThe application process is handled through the official website and involves several stages. Phase I: Registration: Access the RBI official website (rbi.org.in), navigate to the "Opportunities@RBI" section, and click on "Current Vacancies." Select the "Recruitment for the post of Office Attendant - Panel Year 2025" link. Phase II: Personal Profile: Click on "Click Here for New Registration." Enter your full name, a valid mobile number, and an active email ID. A provisional registration number and password will be generated and sent via SMS and email. Phase III: Academic and Professional Detail: Log in with the provided credentials. Fill in details regarding your 10th-standard passing year, board, and marks. Select the regional office you wish to apply for, ensuring you meet the domicile and linguistic requirements. Phase IV: Document Upload: Upload the scanned photograph, signature, thumb impression, and handwritten declaration following the size specifications meticulously. Phase V: Preview and Payment: Review the entire application. Once submitted, details cannot be changed. Proceed to the payment gateway and pay the category-wise fee. Phase VI: Confirmation: Download the application printout and the payment e-receipt. These are essential for future stages of the recruitment process. Strategic Preparation and Bibliographic RecommendationsSuccess in the RBI Office Attendant examination is highly dependent on speed and accuracy. The "easy to moderate" difficulty level means that the cut-offs are high, leaving no room for error. Expert Bibliographic ListThe following resources are recommended by domain experts for comprehensive section-wise preparation:SectionRecommended TitleAuthor / PublisherReasoning AbilityA Modern Approach to Verbal and Non-Verbal ReasoningR.S. AggarwalReasoning AbilityAnalytical ReasoningM.K. PandeyNumerical AbilityQuantitative Aptitude for Competitive ExaminationsR.S. AggarwalNumerical AbilityFast Track Objective ArithmeticRajesh Varma (Arihant)General EnglishObjective General EnglishS.P. Bakshi (Arihant)General EnglishWord Power Made EasyNorman LewisGeneral AwarenessLucent’s General KnowledgeLucent PublicationsGeneral AwarenessBanking AwarenessArihant ExpertsPreparation StrategyFoundation Phase: Spend the first two weeks clarifying concepts in arithmetic (percentages, ratios) and reasoning (syllogism, coding). Use YouTube resources such as "Maths by Arun Sir" or "Reasoning by Arpit Sir" for conceptual clarity. Practice Phase: Solving memory-based papers from the 2021 cycle is non-negotiable. These provide a realistic view of the question difficulty and topic weightage. Mock Test Phase: In the final 15 days, attempt at least one full-length mock test daily. Platforms like Adda247 or Guidely provide interfaces that mimic the actual exam software. Sectional Balance: Do not neglect the General English and General Awareness sections. These are time-savers that can provide a significant boost to the overall score. Official Notice and Link InfrastructureTo ensure the security and authenticity of the application process, candidates must only use official institutional links.Official Recruitment Portal: Click HereNotification PDF Access: Click HereOnline Registration Link: Click HereHow to Apply: Click HereInstructions for candidates: Click Here Guidelines for Scribe: Click Here Instructions for scanned photo document upload at the time of Registration: Click HereCareer OutlookThe RBI Office Attendant Recruitment 2026 represents a critical entry point for individuals seeking a stable, prestigious, and financially rewarding career in India’s central bank. For the 572 successful candidates, the role offers far more than an entry-level salary; it provides a comprehensive socio-economic safety net through medical benefits, housing assistance, and concessional loans. The "undergraduate rule" creates a level playing field for those with 10th-standard qualifications, ensuring that the institution’s foundational tier remains accessible to its target demographic. Furthermore, the promotion hierarchy within the RBI allows an Office Attendant to eventually transition into officer-grade positions through internal exams and consistent performance. This potential for vertical mobility makes the 2026 recruitment drive a strategic milestone for young aspirants. As the February 28, 2026, examination date approaches, candidates are encouraged to focus on speed, precision, and regional linguistic mastery to secure their place in one of the world’s most respected financial institutions.
The Railway Recruitment Cell (RRC) has announced multiple opportunities for meritorious sportspersons to join the Indian Railways under the Sports Quota for the year 2025–26. This recruitment drive is a direct entry path for athletes who have excelled in recognized national and international competitions.Categories:Archery (M)Archery (W)Athletics (W)Athletics (M)Badminton (M)Badminton (W)Boxing (M)Weightlifting (W)Power lifting (W)Lawn Tennis (M)1. Job Requirement OverviewThe recruitment aims to fill vacancies in various Group C and Group D posts across different Railway Zones. Unlike general recruitment, this is purely merit-based focusing on sporting achievements. There is typically no community-based reservation (SC/ST/OBC/EWS) for these posts, though fee concessions apply.2. Requirement Important DatesRailway ZoneApplication Start DateClosing DateSouth Eastern Railway (SER)10 January 202609 February 2026Northern Railway (Group D)08 December 202507 January 2026Northern Railway (Group C)18 November 202517 December 2025South East Central Railway (SECR)17 January 202616 February 2026Western Railway (WR)30 July 202529 August 20253. Application FeeCategoryFeeRefund PolicyGeneral / OBC₹500₹400 refunded after appearing in trialsSC / ST / Women / Minorities / EBC₹250Full refund after appearing in trials*Minorities meaning Muslims, Christians, Sikhs, Buddhists, Jains and Zoroastrians (Parses).4. Age Limitation (as of 01 January 2026)Minimum Age: 18 YearsMaximum Age: 25 YearsAge Relaxation: Generally, no age relaxation is permissible for any category (SC/ST/OBC) in Sports Quota recruitment. Candidates must be born between 02-01-2001 and 01-01-2008.5. Eligibility CategoryLevel 1: 10th Pass or ITI or equivalent.Level 2 / 3: 12th Pass (+2 stage) or equivalent.Level 4 / 5: Graduation degree from a recognized university.Sports Norms: Must have represented the Country/State/University in recognized championships (e.g., Olympic Games, World Cup, Asian Games, Senior National Championships) between 01 April 2023 and the date of notification.6. Detailed List of Vacancy (Snapshot)LevelLevel-1Level-2/3Level-4/5 South East Central Railway011605Northern Railway3821RCF Kapurthala1508 (Level-2)0Central Railway381605NWR281605WR4316057. Detailed Selection Stages (5-Phase Process)Phase 1: Scrutiny of ApplicationsBefore you are invited for trials, the RRC (Railway Recruitment Cell) screens all online/offline applications.Focus: Verification of Age (18–25), Education (10th/12th/Degree), and Sports Norms.Rejection Criteria: Applications with certificates from unrecognized federations or dated before April 1, 2023, are rejected at this stage.Phase 2: Sports Trials & Skill Test (40 Marks)This is the most critical "Elimination Stage." You are required to perform in front of a Selection Committee and a Coach.Marking: Out of 40 Marks (Game Skill: 20, Physical Fitness: 10, Coach Observation: 10).The "FIT" Rule: You must score at least 25 marks to be declared "FIT."Consequence: If you score 24 or less, you are declared "NOT FIT" and disqualified immediately, regardless of how many international medals you have.Phase 3: Assessment of Sports Achievements (50 Marks)Only "FIT" candidates move to this stage. A high-level committee evaluates your sports certificates provided during the application.Marking: Points are awarded based on the level of competition (International > National > University > State) and the color of the medal (Gold > Silver > Bronze).Phase 4: Document Verification (DV)Candidates who make it through the trials are called for a physical check of their original documents.Required Documents: * 10th Certificate (Birth proof)Highest Educational MarksheetsOriginal Sports Certificates (Verified for QR codes/Signatures)Caste/EWS Certificates (if fee concession was taken)Phase 5: Medical ExaminationConducted by the Railway Medical Board. You must meet the specific medical standards (Visual acuity, hearing, and general physical endurance) required for the category of the post (Technical vs. Non-Technical).Final Merit Score Distribution (Total: 100)ComponentMax MarksPassing CriteriaSports Trials4025 Marks (Mandatory)Sports Achievements50Based on Medal/RankEducation10Based on Degree LevelTotal100—Tie-Breaking RuleIf two players have the exact same total score:Higher Sports Achievements: The player with more prestigious medals wins.Age: The younger candidate is preferred (to ensure a longer service life in the Railway sports team).Trials & Skill Test: Assessment of current sports performance (Physical Trial).Assessment of Achievements: Evaluation of certificates and past records.Document Verification: Checking original educational and sports credentials.Medical Examination: Conducted by the Railway Medical Board.8. Exam Pattern (Marks Distribution)There is no written examination. Selection is based on a total of 100 Marks:Sports Trials (Performance/Fitness): 40 Marks (Min. 25 marks required to qualify).Sports Achievements (Past Records): 50 Marks.Educational Qualification: 10 Marks.9. Previous Year Cut-Off AnalysisMinimum aggregate marks required for empanelment (out of 100): Even after qualifying the trials, you must reach a minimum total score to be considered for the final panel:Level 4/5 (Graduation Level): 70 MarksLevel 2/3 (12th Level): 65 MarksLevel 1 (10th Level): 60 Marks10. Required Documents10th/Matriculation Certificate (Proof of Age).Educational Qualification Certificates (12th/Degree).Sports Achievement Certificates (Post-April 2023).Caste Certificate (For fee concession purposes).Aadhar Card and Recent Passport Size Photographs (White Background).11. General ConditionsCandidates must be "Active" players.Trials will be held at designated Railway sports grounds.No TA/DA will be provided for attending trials.Probation period is typically 2 years.12. How to ApplyVisit the official RRC website of the specific zone (e.g., rrcnr.org, rrcser.co.in).Click on "Sports Quota Recruitment 2025-26" link.Register with basic details and log in.Fill in sports achievements and educational details.Upload scanned documents (Photo, Signature, Certificates).Pay the application fee and print the confirmation page.13. Strategic Preparation & Recommended BooksSince there is no written test, preparation should focus on physical conditioning and technical skill mastery in your specific sport.Physical Fitness: Focus on agility, endurance, and sport-specific drills.Recommended Guides: * RRC Sports Quota Athletics Preparation Guide (2026 Edition) by JET Exam Publication.Railway Sports Quota General Knowledge & Railway Rules (for interview context).Official Rule Books of your respective Sports Federation.14. Official Notice & Operational LinksOfficial Website: indianrailways.gov.inHow to apply: Click HereSECR New Registration: Click HereSECR Login : Click HereRCF - Kapurthala Application Form : Click HereRRC Northern Railway: rrcnr.orgRRC South Eastern Railway: rrcser.co.inOfficial Notification: SECR | NR-D | RCFK | NWR | CR | WR | NR-C |Recommended Book: Click Here
The institutional framework of banking recruitment in India is governed by the Institute of Banking Personnel Selection (IBPS), which serves as the centralized authority for personnel selection across Public Sector Banks (PSBs) and Regional Rural Banks (RRBs). The release of the Tentative Calendar for the Online CRP for PSBs and RRBs (2026-2027) represents a critical juncture for approximately four to five million aspirants. This report provides an exhaustive analysis of the recruitment architecture, examining the procedural, demographic, and academic prerequisites necessary to navigate the 2026-2027 cycle. The strategic shift from the traditional "Clerk" designation to "Customer Service Associate" (CSA) serves as a focal point of this analysis, reflecting the evolving nature of retail banking and the emphasis on front-end digital facilitation.1. Requirement OverviewThe 2026-2027 recruitment cycle is structured under the Common Recruitment Process (CRP), a mechanism designed to harmonize the hiring needs of 11 participating Public Sector Banks and 43 Regional Rural Banks. The process aims to fill vacancies in four primary categories: Probationary Officers (PO/MT-XVI), Specialist Officers (SPL-XVI), Customer Service Associates (CSA-XVI), and Regional Rural Bank Officers and Assistants (RRBs-XV).The institutional objective of this drive is to address the dual challenges of large-scale retirements within the banking sector and the burgeoning need for digital-first personnel. The participating banks in the PSB cadre include major national entities such as the Bank of Baroda, Canara Bank, and Punjab National Bank, each reporting vacancies based on their respective business volumes and branch expansion strategies. In contrast, the RRB recruitment is localized, focusing on 43 specific banks like the Andhra Pradesh Grameena Vikas Bank and the Baroda Rajasthan Kshetriya Gramin Bank, where proficiency in regional languages is paramount for rural credit delivery.Participating Public Sector Banks (PSBs)Sr. No.Name of the Participating Bank1Bank of Baroda2Bank of India3Bank of Maharashtra4Canara Bank5Central Bank of India6Indian Bank7Indian Overseas Bank8Punjab National Bank9Punjab & Sind Bank10UCO Bank11Union Bank of India2. Recruitment Important DatesThe IBPS 2026-2027 calendar, officially released on January 16, 2026, provides a rigorous schedule that allows candidates to synchronize their preparation cycles with the examination stages. The cycle begins in August 2026 and concludes with the final provisional allotments in April 2027.2.1 PSB Recruitment Schedule (PO, SO, and CSA)The schedule for Public Sector Banks is divided into three distinct tracks. The PO and SO examinations are conducted earlier in the cycle, followed by the newly renamed Customer Service Associate (CSA) examinations.Examination StageProbationary Officers (PO/MT)Specialist Officers (SPL)Customer Service Associates (CSA)Preliminary Examination22nd & 23rd August 202629th August 202610th & 11th October 2026Main Examination4th October 20261st November 202627th December 2026Result Declaration (Main)October/November 2026November/December 2026January 2027Interview / AllotmentJan/Feb 2027 / April 2027Feb 2027 / April 2027April 2027 (No Interview)2.2 RRB Recruitment Schedule (Officers and Office Assistants)The Regional Rural Bank schedule is characterized by a late-year focus, with examinations primarily held in November and December 2026.Post CategoryPreliminary ExaminationMain / Single ExaminationOfficer Scale I21st & 22nd November 202620th December 2026Officer Scale II & IIINot Applicable20th December 2026Office Assistants6th, 12th & 13th December 202630th January 20273. Application FeeThe fiscal requirements for application are standardized across the various CRP categories. These fees are non-refundable and cover the technological infrastructure required for the computer-based testing (CBT) environment.Candidate CategoryApplication Fee (Inclusive of GST)SC / ST / PwBD / ESM / DESM₹175All Other Categories (General/OBC/EWS)₹850Transactions must be completed via online payment gateways, supporting debit cards, credit cards, internet banking, and mobile wallets. The integration of GST into the fee structure ensures transparency in the administrative costing of the recruitment process.4. Age LimitAge eligibility serves as the primary demographic filter. The criteria are established to ensure a balance between youthful energy and the potential for long-term career progression within the banking hierarchy.4.1 Post-wise Age RequirementsThe age limits are typically calculated as on a specific reference date, usually August 1st or July 1st of the recruitment year.Post NameMinimum AgeMaximum AgeCustomer Service Associate (CSA)20 Years28 YearsProbationary Officer (PO)20 Years30 YearsSpecialist Officer (Scale I)20 Years30 YearsRRB Office Assistant18 Years28 YearsRRB Officer Scale I (Assistant Manager)18 Years30 YearsRRB Officer Scale II (Manager)21 Years32 YearsRRB Officer Scale III (Senior Manager)21 Years40 Years4.2 Age Limit Calculation ReferenceFor the 2026-27 cycle, candidates for the PO and SO cadres must generally have been born between July 2, 1996, and July 1, 2006 (both dates inclusive).6 Candidates for the CSA cadre must typically have birth dates falling between July 2, 1998, and July 1, 2006.4.3 Statutory Age RelaxationThe upper age limit is relaxable for specific categories as per the extant orders of the Government of India.CategoryRelaxation PeriodScheduled Caste / Scheduled Tribe (SC/ST)5 YearsOther Backward Classes (OBC - Non-Creamy Layer)3 YearsPersons with Benchmark Disabilities (PwBD)10 YearsEx-Servicemen / Commissioned Officers5 YearsWidows / Divorced Women (for CSA/Clerk posts)9 to 14 Years (based on category)Persons Affected by 1984 Riots5 Years5. Eligibility CriteriaBeyond age, candidates must meet specific requirements regarding nationality, educational qualifications, and credit history.5.1 Nationality and Statutory ResidencyA candidate must satisfy one of the following criteria:Citizenship of India.Subjecthood of Nepal or Bhutan.Tibetan refugee status (arrival in India prior to January 1, 1962).Persons of Indian Origin (PIO) migrated from specific countries (e.g., Pakistan, Sri Lanka, Vietnam) with the intent of permanent settlement.5.2 Academic QualificationsThe academic prerequisites are strictly enforced, with the requirement that the qualifying degree must be obtained from a government-recognized institution on or before the application deadline.PostMinimum Educational QualificationPO & CSAGraduation in any discipline from a recognized University.IT Officer (Scale I)4-year Engineering Degree in CS/IT/Electronics or PG in relevant field.Agriculture Officer4-year Graduation in Agriculture/Horticulture/Veterinary Science, etc.Law OfficerBachelor Degree in Law (LLB) and enrollment as an advocate with Bar Council.HR/Personnel OfficerGraduate and 2-year Full-time PG Degree/Diploma in HR/Personnel Management.Marketing OfficerGraduate and 2-year Full-time MBA/MMS (Marketing).5.3 Technical Literacy and Credit StandardsIn an era of rapid digitalization, IBPS mandates "Working Knowledge of Computer Systems" for all clerical/CSA and RRB posts. This must be evidenced by a certificate or by having studied Computer/IT as a subject in secondary or higher education. Furthermore, modern banking standards require candidates to possess a healthy credit history. A CIBIL score of 650 or higher is generally mandated at the time of joining. Candidates without a credit history (first-time borrowers) are exempt, but those with defaulted accounts must produce a No Objection Certificate (NOC).6. Detailed List of VacancyVacancies are reported dynamically by the participating banks based on their financial health, branch expansion, and attrition rates. While exact figures for 2026-27 are finalized through the individual notifications, historical data and recent trends allow for a sophisticated projection.6.1 Historical Vacancy Distribution (CRP 2023-2025)Recruitment CycleIBPS PO VacanciesIBPS CSA/Clerk VacanciesIBPS RRB (Total)2025-20265,20815,70113,3162024-20254,45511,82610,3132023-20243,0494,5459,000+6.2 RRB Post-wise Vacancy Analysis (Based on 2025 Revisions)RRB Post CategoryVacancies (Revised 2025)Office Assistants (Multipurpose)8,002Officer Scale I (Assistant Manager)3,928Officer Scale II (General Banking Officer)859Officer Scale II (Specialist Officers)325Officer Scale III (Senior Manager)202The evidence suggests a stabilizing trend in vacancy reporting, with a notable surge in RRB and clerical roles to support the "Financial Inclusion" mandate and the expansion of digital banking units in rural geographies.7. Selection ProcessThe selection architecture is designed to filter candidates through multiple layers of cognitive and behavioral assessments. The complexity of the process increases with the seniority of the post.7.1 Tiered Examination StructurePreliminary Examination (All Cadres): A one-hour objective test (100 marks) focusing on English Language, Reasoning Ability, and Numerical Ability. This stage is qualifying in nature.Main Examination (PO/SO/CSA): A comprehensive assessment including Data Interpretation, General Awareness, and Professional Knowledge (for SO). PO candidates also face a descriptive test (Letter/Essay).Single Level Examination (RRB Scale II & III): A two-hour specialized test replacing the Prelims/Mains tier for experienced lateral entries.Personal Interview (Officers Only): Shortlisted candidates from the Main/Single exams are interviewed by a panel. The final merit is calculated using an 80:20 weighted score of the Main exam and the Interview.7.2 Post-Selection FormalitiesFor Customer Service Associates and RRB Office Assistants, there is no interview. However, candidates must undergo a Language Proficiency Test (LPT) if they have not studied the local language up to the 10th/12th standard. Failure in the LPT leads to disqualification regardless of the Main exam score.8. Required Documents for JobDocument verification (DV) is the final gatekeeping stage. Any discrepancy between the online application and physical documents results in immediate cancellation of candidature.8.1 Application Upload EssentialsPhotograph: 20kb to 50kb in.jpeg file.Signature: 10kb to 20kb (not in capital letters).Left Thumb Impression: 20kb to 50kb.Handwritten Declaration: 50kb to 100kb. Text: “I, [Name], hereby declare that all the information submitted by me in the application form is correct, true and valid. I will present the supporting documents as and when required.”.8.2 Physical Verification ListPrintout of the Online Application Form.Valid Interview Call Letter and Main Exam Scorecard.Proof of Date of Birth (Secondary School Certificate).Graduation Degree and Sem-wise Marksheets.Caste/EWS/Disability Certificates (as applicable).NOC for currently employed candidates.9. General Conditions and InstructionsThe IBPS framework operates under strict administrative protocols to ensure a standardized testing environment.Post Exclusivity: A candidate is permitted to apply for only one post within a specific recruitment drive (e.g., only one SO post).Biometric Verification: Biometric data (thumb impression and iris scan) and "Live Photographs" are captured at the exam venue to prevent impersonation.Scribe Guidelines: Candidates with physical disabilities limiting their writing speed can utilize a scribe, subject to providing the requisite indemnity bond and medical certificates.Penalty for Misconduct: Any attempt at canvassing or providing fraudulent information leads to debarment from all future IBPS examinations.10. How to ApplyThe application process is strictly online through the official portal. Candidates are advised to use high-speed internet to avoid session timeouts during fee payment.Registration: Click on "Click Here for New Registration." Enter the basic profile (Mobile/Email) to generate a Registration Number and Password.Document Upload: Upload the scanned photo, signature, thumb impression, and declaration according to the specified pixel and file size dimensions.Academic & Preference Entry: Fill in detailed educational scores. Select "Bank Preference" in order of priority. This choice is final and used for provisional allotment.Fee Payment: Use the integrated payment gateway for the ₹850 (Gen/OBC) or ₹175 (Reserved) fee.Final Submission: Download the e-receipt and the filled application form. These are mandatory for the Document Verification stage.11. Previous Year Cutoff AnalysisCutoff marks are a dynamic metric reflecting the ratio of exam difficulty to vacancy volume. A multi-year analysis helps aspirants set realistic target scores.11.1 IBPS Clerk/CSA Prelims Cutoff Comparison (2024-2025)State / UTGeneral Category (2025)General Category (2024)Andhra Pradesh64.5077.50Bihar61.2579.50Chandigarh86.5081.50Delhi84.0080.75Haryana78.5083.00Karnataka46.0064.75Uttar Pradesh69.7579.00West Bengal78.5087.7511.2 IBPS PO Prelims Cutoff Trends (2021-2025)The PO cutoff is calculated at a national level across the three objective sections.YearUR / General CutoffSC CutoffST CutoffOBC Cutoff202549.2145.9640.9649.21202448.5048.0041.0048.50202354.2549.0043.0054.25202249.7546.7540.7549.75202150.5044.5038.0050.5011.3 RRB PO Prelims Cutoff (Out of 80 Marks)State2024 Cutoff2023 Cutoff2022 CutoffHaryana61.7554.7561.75Madhya Pradesh55.2550.0055.25Odisha56.2558.0060.25Uttar Pradesh51.0053.7562.75West Bengal57.7553.2558.2511.4 IBPS SO Mains Professional Knowledge Cutoff (Out of 60)Specialist StreamUR Cutoff (2025)UR Cutoff (2024)IT Officer (Scale I)23.2516.50Agriculture Field Officer33.5017.00Law Officer (Scale I)34.0044.00Marketing Officer31.2518.50The analysis indicates a rising trend in clerical cutoffs in northern states (Delhi, Haryana, Chandigarh), suggesting intensified competition in the Hindi heartland, while southern states like Karnataka and Telangana show relatively moderate cutoffs.12. Strategic Preparation and Recommended ResourcesPreparation must be phase-specific, prioritizing speed in Prelims and conceptual depth in Mains.12.1 Subject-wise Recommended BibliographySubjectRecommended TitleAuthor / PublisherQuantitative AptitudeQuantitative Aptitude for Competitive ExaminationsR.S. Aggarwal (S. Chand)Reasoning AbilityA Modern Approach to Verbal & Non-Verbal ReasoningR.S. Aggarwal (S. Chand)English LanguageObjective General EnglishS.P. Bakshi (Arihant)Banking AwarenessBanking AwarenessArihant / Disha ExpertsData InterpretationDI & Data SufficiencyArun SharmaComputer AwarenessObjective Computer AwarenessArihant Experts12.2 The 2026-27 Preparation RoadmapFoundation Phase (January - March): Complete the syllabus for all sections. Focus on Vedic Maths and shortcut techniques to improve calculation speed.Practice Phase (April - June): Solve topic-wise quizzes and previous year question papers. Identify weak areas in logical reasoning and data interpretation.Mock Phase (July - August): Transition to full-length "Computer Based Tests" (CBT). Analyze mock performance using analytics to improve sectional timing.Mains Specific Phase (September - November): Shift focus to Descriptive English (Letter/Essay writing) and advanced puzzles. For SO candidates, this is the time for deep dives into professional domain subjects.13. Official Notice & Operational LinksAspirants are advised to book-mark the following portals for real-time updates and document downloads.Official IBPS Website: Click HereOfficial Notification (Tentative):CLICK HEREBest Books for Preparation: CLICK HEREApplication Link: Apply NowGrievance Redressal Portal: CLICK HERE Connect on WhatsApp: Join Community14. Conclusion and Future OutlookThe 2026-2027 IBPS calendar signifies a robust opportunity for entry into the Indian financial core. The evolution of the Customer Service Associate role and the continued emphasis on Regional Rural Banks suggest a sector that is increasingly focusing on last-mile digital delivery and regional language integration. For the aspirant, success hinges on a dual mastery of numerical speed and situational awareness. With over 30,000 projected vacancies across various cadres, the current cycle offers the most significant pathway to a stable and prestigious career in public sector banking. Candidates are urged to monitor the official portal regularly for any administrative revisions to the tentative dates and to maintain a high degree of documentation accuracy during the registration process.
1. Requirement OverviewThe Indian Air Force (IAF) is inviting applications from eligible unmarried Indian male candidates to join as Airmen in the Medical Assistant trade (Group 'Y'). This is a Regular/Permanent Commission entry into the Indian Air Force, providing job security and long-term career benefits.2. Recruitment Important DatesApplication Start Date: January 2026Last Date to Apply: 01 February 2026Recruitment Rally/Exam Dates: Expected February/March 2026Tentative Enrolment: June 20263. Application FeeFor All Candidates: ₹100/- (plus GST if applicable)Payment Mode: Online through the official portal.4. Age LimitMinimum Age Required: 17.5 YearsMaximum Age Limit:For 12th Pass Candidates: 21 Years (Born between 02 Jan 2005 and 02 July 2008).For Diploma/B.Sc Pharmacy: 24 Years (Born between 02 Jan 2002 and 02 July 2008).Age Limit as on: 01 February 2026Additional Age Relaxation: As per Government Orders.5. Eligibility CriteriaEducational Qualification:Option A: Passed 10+2/Intermediate with Physics, Chemistry, Biology (PCB), and English with min. 50% marks in aggregate and 50% marks in English.Option B: Two-year Diploma in Pharmacy or a B.Sc in Pharmacy with min. 50% aggregate and 50% in English.Marital Status: Unmarried Male candidates only.6. Detailed List of VacancyPost Name: Medical Assistant (Group 'Y')Nature of Job: Permanent Commission (Non-Agniveer)Salary: Initially ₹26,900 per month + Dearness Allowance (DA) and other Military Service Pay (MSP). Total gross salary starts at approx. ₹40,000+.7. Selection Process7.1. Phase I – Online Written ExaminationThis is the first stage of selection.Mode of exam is onlineDuration of exam is 45 minutesQuestion paper is bilingual English and Hindi except English sectionSubjects includedEnglishReasoningGeneral AwarenessMarking Scheme1 mark for each correct answerNo marks for unanswered questions0.25 marks deducted for each wrong answerCandidates must qualify each paper separately. Normalisation of marks may be applied if required.7.2. Phase II – Physical and Adaptability TestsCandidates shortlisted from Phase I are called for Phase II at designated Airmen Selection Centres.Physical Fitness Test (PFT)PFT-I1.6 km runUp to 21 years: within 7 minutesAbove 21 years with Diploma or B.Sc Pharmacy: within 7 minutes 30 secondsPFT-II10 Push-ups in 1 minute10 Sit-ups in 1 minute20 Squats in 1 minuteCandidates must qualify both parts of PFT.Adaptability TestsAdaptability Test-IWritten objective type test to assess suitability for Air Force environmentAdaptability Test-IIAssesses ability to adapt to military life and service conditionsOnly candidates clearing both adaptability tests are considered further.7.3. Phase III – Medical ExaminationCandidates who qualify Phase II undergo detailed medical examination by Air Force Medical Board.Medical tests includeBlood and urine testsBiochemistry testsChest X-rayECGAny other test as prescribed by IAF medical authoritiesFinal medical fitness is decided by the Medical Board and is binding.7.4. Final Merit List and EnrolmentProvisional Select List is prepared based on performance and medical fitnessFinal enrolment is done strictly on merit basisEnrolment is subject to availability of vacancies and meeting all eligibility conditions8. Exam Pattern & Marking SchemeSectionNo. of QuestionsMarksDurationEnglish2020Total 45 MinutesRAGA (Reasoning & GA)3030Total5050Marking: +1 for every correct answer.Negative Marking: 0.25 marks deducted for every wrong answer.9. Detailed SyllabusA. English (20 Marks)Comprehension: A small passage followed by 4-5 questions.Grammar:Subject-verb agreement.Tenses and Sequence of tenses.Transformation of sentences (Compound, Complex, Simple, etc.).Formation of words (Nouns from Verbs/Adjectives, etc.).Determiners, Prepositions, Nouns, Pronouns, and Adjectives.Modals and Clauses (Noun, Adverb, Relative clauses).Vocabulary: Synonyms, Antonyms, One-word substitution, Spelling pitfalls, Idioms, and Phrases.Narration & Voice: Direct/Indirect speech and Active/Passive voice.B. Reasoning & General Awareness - RAGA (30 Marks)Reasoning (Verbal & Non-Verbal):Number Series and Alphabet Series.Distance and Direction Sense Test.Mathematical Operations & Number Ranking.Coding and Decoding.Odd Man Out and Analogy.Human Relations/Blood Relations.Dictionary-based word arrangements.Non-verbal reasoning (Pattern completion, Mirror images).Mathematics (Basic):Ratio and Proportion, Average, LCM & HCF.Profit and Loss, Time, Distance, and Speed.Percentages and Simplification.Fractions and Simple Trigonometry.Area and Volume (Triangle, Square, Rectangle, Cylinder, Cone, Sphere).General Awareness:General Science (Basic Physics/Chemistry/Biology).Civics and Constitution of India.Geography and History.Current Affairs: National & International events, Awards, and Sports.10. Required Documents to Job10th Class Passing Certificate (for DOB).12th Class Marksheet & Certificate (PCB).Pharmacy Diploma/Degree Certificate (if applicable).Valid Domicile Certificate.NCC Certificate (if any).Passport size photographs (light blue background).11. General Conditions and InstructionsCandidates must meet the Visual Standards (6/36 each eye, correctable to 6/9).No permanent tattoos on the inner face of the forearms or other visible body parts.Only candidates from specific states mentioned in the rally notification can attend the rally (if applicable).12. How to ApplyVisit the official IAF recruitment website: airmenselection.cdac.in.Navigate to the "Medical Assistant Recruitment" link.Register yourself and upload the scanned copies of required documents.Submit the application and pay the fee online.Download the Provisional Admit Card for the recruitment rally/exam.13. Detailed List of Vacancy (Rally Locations)Rally Location (Venue)States / UTs CoveredAir Force Station, Tambaram (Chennai)Tamil Nadu, Kerala, Karnataka, Puducherry, LakshadweepAir Force Station, Borjhar (Guwahati)Assam, Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram, Nagaland, Tripura, Meghalaya, ManipurAir Force Station, Barrackpore (West Bengal)West Bengal, Sikkim, OdishaAir Force Station, Kanpur (Uttar Pradesh)Uttar Pradesh, UttarakhandAir Force Station, Ambala (Haryana)Haryana, Himachal Pradesh, Punjab, Chandigarh, J&K, LadakhAir Force Station, Jodhpur (Rajasthan)Rajasthan, Gujarat, Daman & DiuAir Force Station, Bihta (Patna, Bihar)Bihar, JharkhandAir Force Station, Nagpur (Maharashtra)Maharashtra, Chhattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh, GoaAir Force Station, Begumpet (Hyderabad)Telangana, Andhra Pradesh13. Official Notice & LinkBest Books for RAGA & English: Recommended BooksOfficial Notification: Download PDFOfficial Website: Click HereWhatsApp Updates: Click Here
