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AEE General Studies Guidance DocumentsWhat it is: Resource lists providing links to study materials for all GS subjects.Discussion: These documents act as a syllabus roadmap, directing students to specific folders for Modern History, AP Geography, Disaster Management, and Sustainable Development. They are highly organized, linking video lectures to specific topics (e.g., ST-1 through ST-24).
General Studies Guidance & MCQ BankFocus Area: Comprehensive Syllabus Roadmap and High-Volume Practice.Key Topics: Modern Indian History (Governor Generals, Freedom Struggle), Indian Polity (Union Executive), and World Geography (Straits, Islands).Study Aid: Provides a structured collection of thousands of bits (MCQs) and external drive links for specialized subjects like AP Bifurcation and Sustainable Development.
APPSC AEE General Studies & Mental Ability (2016 Mains)Focus Area: Advanced General Studies and Analytical Reasoning for Mains-level examination.Key Topics: Global Economic Indices (Noble Prize winners, Transparency International), Science & Tech (World's largest aircraft), and Social Issues.Aptitude: Features complex Mental Ability sections including logical puzzles involving card games and sequence arrangements.
APPSC AEE General Studies (2007)Focus Area: General Awareness, State-specific Governance, and Mental Ability.Key Topics: Current Affairs (state schemes like 'Pallebata'), Logical Reasoning (ratios, work-energy physics), and Geography (Indian river systems).General Knowledge: Emphasizes regional news from the early 2000s, sports milestones, and basic scientific principles.
APPSC AEE General Studies (2004)Focus Area: General Awareness, State-specific Governance, and Mental Ability.Key Topics: Current Affairs (state schemes like 'Pallebata'), Logical Reasoning (ratios, work-energy physics), and Geography (Indian river systems).General Knowledge: Emphasizes regional news from the early 2000s, sports milestones, and basic scientific principles.
APPSC AEE Screening Test (2019) - Electrical EngineeringFocus Area: Combined Technical Knowledge with General Studies and Mental Ability.Key Topics: Space Technology (ISRO missions, ASTROSAT), Indian Polity (NITI Aayog, Constitutional Articles), and International Affairs (G-20, UN).General Knowledge: Includes detailed solutions on National Institutions like the Saha Institute of Nuclear Physics and environmental initiatives like "Operation Greens."
AEE Electrical Engineering Paper - III (2012)Focus Area: Power System Infrastructure, Generation, and Transmission Components.Key Topics: Power Plant Economics (hydropower and nuclear cooling), Transmission Line Insulators (porcelain glazing, pin-type, and suspension discs), and String Efficiency.Technical Detail: Deep dive into high-voltage equipment, including the mechanical design of insulators and static shielding for potential distribution.
AEE Electrical Engineering Paper - II (2012)Focus Area: Core Electrical Engineering Principles and Machine Characteristics.Key Topics: DC Machines (generators and motors), Induction Motors (cascade operation, rotor bar skewing), Transformers (core materials and Scott connections), and Measuring Instruments (CROs and indicating instruments).Technical Detail: Covers complex engineering concepts such as Laplace transforms and the generated EMF in shunt generators.
AP DEECET 2022 - Mathematics (English Medium)Focus Area: High School and Intermediate level Mathematics combined with Teaching Methodology.Key Topics: Coordinate Geometry (circles cutting orthogonally, parabola focus), Calculus (limits and continuity), and Algebra (quadratic equations).Teaching Aptitude: Emphasizes the Greek roots of educational terms (e.g., "Philos"), Right to Education (RTE) Act 2009 specifics, and Early Childhood Care and Education (ECCE) frameworks.General Knowledge: Covers regional specialities like Kanjeevaram Silk and Andhra Pradesh martial arts (Kathi Samu).
TS DEECET 2015 (EM/TM)Exam Duration: 2 Hours Subject Sections:General Knowledge: Early Indian satellites (G.SAT-7), Indian Standard Time calculation, and rural educational institutions (Navodaya Vidyalaya). English & Telugu: Traditional grammar including degrees of comparison, passive voice, and classic Telugu literature (Ramayana, Mahabharata). Advanced Core: Detailed math problems involving arithmetic progressions and modes of distribution.
AP DEECET 2018 - Physical Science (English Medium)Subject Sections:Teaching Aptitude: Authority for textbooks (SCERT), school management committees, and classroom hours. General Knowledge: Kia Motors operations in Andhra Pradesh, state-specific helpline numbers, and regional aviation schemes (UDAN). Biology: Topics like reticulate venation, incomplete flowers, endocrine system hormones, and human chromosome counts. Physical Science: Chemistry of rusting, gas evolution in reactions, SI units of work, and eye defect corrections (bifocal lenses).
DEECET 2018 - Social Studies (English Medium)Focus Area: Political Science and Constitutional Law.Key Topics: Articles of the Indian Constitution (specifically Article 17 regarding untouchability), the roles of the President and Prime Minister, and Judicial Review origins.Pedagogy: Strategies for teaching weak students and methods to develop scientific awareness/logical thinking in children.Philosophy: Covers classical definitions of man as a "Social Animal" (Aristotle).
DEECET 2018 - Biology (English Medium)Focus Area: Human Physiology and Educational Infrastructure.Key Topics: Human anatomy (cervical vertebrae, blood coagulation ions Ca^{++}, pulmonary artery functions) and diseases like Meningitis.Teaching Aptitude: Discusses the characteristics of a "best textbook" and the role of the School Management Committee (SMC).Infrastructure: Questions on the Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan (SSA) and primary school facility projects.
DEECET 2018 - Mathematics (English Medium)Focus Area: Pedagogy-heavy Mathematics paper focusing on classroom interaction.Key Topics: Advanced circle geometry (radical axis, length of tangents) and parabola conditions (y^2=4ax).Teaching Aptitude: Focuses on the "Main aim of teaching" (developing reasoning and problem-solving) and the effectiveness of teaching aids.General Knowledge: Includes urban trivia like the "Pink City" (Jaipur) and regional geography.
AP DEECET 2019 - Mathematics (Telugu/English Medium)Focus Area: Core mathematical concepts explained through bilingual medium (Telugu/English).Key Topics: Geometry of the ellipse and hyperbola (tangent equations), alongside fundamental arithmetic.Teaching Aptitude: Analyzes the "Fundamental elements of teaching" (Teacher, Student, Subject) and distinguishes between formal, informal, and non-formal education types.Social Analysis: Integrates the application of classroom learning to daily life scenarios.
AP DEECET 2022 - Social Studies (English Medium)Focus Area: Civic Literacy and Teacher Professionalism.Key Topics: International organizations (UNO headquarters/founding year), Constitutional amendments (42nd Amendment adding "Secular"), and Supreme Court appointments.Teaching Aptitude: Explores the etymology of "Vidya," the role of the NCTE (National Council for Teacher Education), and continuous student evaluation.General Knowledge: Highlights recent government initiatives like door-delivery ration programs in Andhra Pradesh.
AP DEECET 2022 - Mathematics (English Medium)Focus Area: High School and Intermediate level Mathematics combined with Teaching Methodology.Key Topics: Coordinate Geometry (circles cutting orthogonally, parabola focus), Calculus (limits and continuity), and Algebra (quadratic equations).Teaching Aptitude: Emphasizes the Greek roots of educational terms (e.g., "Philos"), Right to Education (RTE) Act 2009 specifics, and Early Childhood Care and Education (ECCE) frameworks.General Knowledge: Covers regional specialities like Kanjeevaram Silk and Andhra Pradesh martial arts (Kathi Samu).
AP DEECET 2022 - Biological Science (Set 1)Subject Sections:Teaching Aptitude: Root of the word "Vidya," role of NCTE, and continuous evaluation strategies. General Knowledge: India's first post office ATM, United Nations headquarters, and international women's day dates. Core Biology: Anatomical features like hollow bones in birds (sparrows), first man-made fibers (nylon), and the master gland of the human body.
AP DEECET 2022 - Physical Science (Set 2)Subject Sections:Part A: Definitions of "Philos," RTE-2009 age groups, ECCE expansion, and Kanjeevaram Silk geography. General Science: Bone joints (skull), synthetic fibers (acrylic), digestive juices (bile), and physics basics like evaporation and acceleration units. Mathematics: Perimeter calculations, interest compounding, and quadratic equation properties.
English Medium with Urdu 2025 (Shift 2)Exam Date: May 25, 2025 Subject Sections:General Knowledge: Current events of 2025 (cricket retirements, humanitarian missions like 'Operation Brahma'), Telangana-specific SC reservation laws, and medicine branches (Dermatology). Teaching Aptitude: Foundational Literacy and Numeracy (FLN) targets and catering to different learning styles. General Urdu: Poetry interpretation (Moin Ahsan Jazbi), Urdu literary works ("Yadein"), and grammar. Mathematics: Irrational numbers, HCF/LCM, set theory subsets, and polynomial factorization.
TG DEECET 2024 - English Medium with TeluguExam Date: July 10, 2024 Subject Sections:General Knowledge and Teaching Aptitude: Covers topics such as the English script (Latin), Martyrs' Day dates, Viticulture, 2011 census data, and NEP 2020 recommendations for pre-schooling. General English: Includes questions on parts of speech, adverbs, comparative adjectives, idioms like "red-handed," question tags, and reading comprehension passages about the influence of preconceptions on reading. General Telugu: Features literary questions on authors like Samala Sadasiva, grammatical topics like compound words (Samasamulu), and idioms/proverbs. Mathematics: Contains problems on coordinate geometry (distance formula), logarithms, trigonometry (cosec and tan functions), linear equations, probability, and basic geometry.
AP DEECET 2025 - Social Studies (English)Exam Date: June 2, 2025 Subject Sections:Part A: Aligned with other 2025 papers including general awareness and teaching skills. Part B (Social Sciences): Focuses on constitutional law (American and British influences), economics (demand curves for inferior goods, marginal productivity), and history (life of Gautama Buddha).
AP DEECET 2025 - Mathematics (English)Exam Date: June 2, 2025 Subject Sections:Part A: Standard teaching aptitude and general knowledge sections focusing on classroom management and national figures. Part B (Advanced Mathematics): Covers vector algebra (collinear vectors), geometry (conic sections like hyperbolas and polar equations), complex numbers (cube roots of unity), and calculus (differentiation).
AP DEECET 2025 - Physical Science (English)Exam Date: June 2, 2025 Subject Sections:Part A (General Awareness): Includes teaching aptitude (improving retention), general knowledge (inventors like Kasinathuni Nageswara Rao, Sardar Sarovar dam location), and basic English/Telugu. Mathematics: Features geometry (cone and sphere volume), ratios, factorization, and statistics (median height calculation). Science & Social Studies: Basics on polymers (Bakelite), isotopes (Deuterium), human anatomy, and history (Delhi Sultans, fundamental rights). Part B (Physics & Chemistry): Advanced topics like current density, self-induction, Rutherford’s alpha particle experiment, thermodynamics, and order of chemical reactions
AP DEECET 2025 - Biological Science (English)Exam Date: June 2, 2025 Subject Sections:Part A: Common sections with other 2025 papers covering teaching aptitude, general knowledge, and language proficiency. Part B (Biology Focus): Highly specialized biology content including Mendel’s experiments, bacteriology, plant physiology (citric acid production), transgenic crops, DNA visualization (agar gel), cell biology (meiosis pairing), and vegetative propagation in plants.
The GATE 2026 Electrical Engineering (EE) question paper, which was organized by IIT Guwahati. The complete document spans 55 pages and includes both General Aptitude and technical subject questions.Exam StructureGeneral Aptitude (GA): Questions 1 through 5 carry one mark each, while questions 6 through 10 carry two marks each.Electrical Engineering (EE): Questions 11 through 35 are worth one mark each, and questions 36 through 65 are worth two marks each.Technical Topics CoveredCircuits and Control Systems: The paper includes questions on linear elements, Thevenin’s equivalent parameters, Bode plots, and state-space system representations.Power Systems: Content addresses load flow analysis (Newton-Raphson), zero sequence components, reactance relay characteristics, and power losses in transmission lines.Electrical Machines: Topics covered include single-phase transformers, autotransformers, synchronous generators, and induction motor operations.Power Electronics: Questions focus on MOSFET turn-off characteristics, power diode forward characteristics, and boost converter analysis.Mathematics and Electromagnetics: The examination includes problems related to linear algebra (e.g., matrices), differential equations, complex variables, contour integration, vector fields, and force on point charges.CLICK HERE FOR EE GATE 14, FEB 2026 MORNING SHIFT ANSWER SHEET
An Anthropology examination test booklet (Subject Code: A-01-02). The following is a summary of the exam guidelines and content:Examination AdministrationStructure: The test consists of 50 multiple-choice questions totaling 100 marks, to be completed in 1 hour and 15 minutes.Candidate Procedures: Candidates must record their hall ticket number and verify the booklet for completeness within the first 5 minutes.Evaluation Rules: Responses must be marked in an OMR sheet using a blue or black ballpoint pen. There are no negative marks for incorrect answers.Prohibitions: Electronic devices, calculators, and log tables are strictly prohibited. Rough work must be limited to the space provided at the end of the booklet.Academic Content: The questions assess knowledge across several anthropological domains:Social-Cultural Anthropology: Covers concepts such as ethnography, tribe-caste continuums, kinship types, marriage systems, and rituals.Physical Anthropology & Genetics: Includes evolutionary theory, mutation, population genetics, and human polymorphism.Prehistoric Archaeology: Features questions regarding geological sequences, prehistoric cultural phases (e.g., Neolithic, Megalithic), and specific archaeological sites related to the Indus Valley culture.Reading Comprehension: The booklet includes a passage discussing the necessity of stabilizing the global population to address future food supply challenges. The text highlights that modern agricultural output depends on fossil fuel-reliant inputs, which, when coupled with population growth and poverty, may exacerbate structural violence and social unrest in underdeveloped nations.
The Chemical Sciences test booklet (Paper II, Code A-02-02).Examination DetailsFormat: The booklet contains 50 multiple-choice questions.Assessment: The test has a maximum of 100 marks and a duration of 1 hour and 15 minutes.Negative Marking: There is no negative marking for incorrect answers.Instructions for CandidatesVerification: Candidates must break the paper seal and verify that the booklet is complete and matches the cover page information within the first 5 minutes of the exam.Answering: Responses must be recorded on the OMR sheet using a blue or black ballpoint pen; any marks outside the circles will not be evaluated.Prohibited Items: The use of calculators, log tables, and other electronic devices is strictly prohibited.Compliance: Writing names or any identifying marks on the OMR sheet, outside designated areas, may lead to disqualification. All test materials must be returned to the invigilators before leaving the hall.Content OverviewThe exam evaluates various chemical concepts, including ionization energy, molecular structures (e.g., nicotine), thermodynamics of water vapour, and electroactive ions.It covers advanced topics such as Miller indices, molar conductance, chromatography, spectroscopy (NMR, ESR, IR), Planck's constant, crystal field stabilization energy, and reaction mechanisms.The assessment includes diverse question formats, such as assertion-reasoning statements, matching exercises, and identification of reaction products or chemical properties.Topics also extend to industrial and environmental chemistry, such as the pollutant involved in the 1984 Bhopal disaster.
An examination test booklet for the subject of Commerce, identified by code A-03-02.Examination GuidelinesDuration and Marks: The exam is 1 hour and 15 minutes long with a maximum of 100 marks.Format: It consists of 50 multiple-choice questions.Requirements: Candidates must use a Blue or Black ballpoint pen to mark their answers on an OMR sheet.Prohibitions: Electronic devices, including calculators and log tables, are strictly prohibited.Scoring: There is no deduction of marks for incorrect answers.Subject Matter Coverage: The test booklet covers a broad range of commerce and business topics:Economics: Questions involve privatization, globalization, market structures, and utility theories.Finance and Accounting: Content includes funds flow statements, ratio analysis, inflation accounting, profit after tax, and share valuation procedures.Management and Marketing: Topics include strategic planning, motivation theories (Maslow, Herzberg), the AIDA advertising model, product life cycles, and job design.Information Technology: The booklet tests knowledge of Tally 9 and MS Excel commands.Banking and Institutions: Queries relate to the establishment and objectives of organizations such as EXIM Bank, NABARD, and the relationship between the World Bank and the International Finance Corporation (IFC).Comprehension Section: The document concludes with a reading comprehension passage titled "Full Convertibility". This section examines the history of India's road map toward full rupee convertibility, the influence of past financial crises on policy, and the necessary structural and regulatory reforms—such as improved financial reporting and corporate governance—required to support a transition to full convertibility.
The guidelines and content for the "Earth, Atmospheric, Ocean and Planetary Sciences" examination, coded A-08-02. The exam consists of 50 multiple-choice questions with a total of 100 marks. Candidates are allotted 1 hour and 15 minutes to complete the test.Examination Instructions:Verification: Upon receiving the booklet, candidates must verify it for missing pages or questions within the first 5 minutes.Marking: Use only a blue or black ballpoint pen to darken the correct response circle on the OMR sheet.Prohibitions: Electronic devices, including calculators and log tables, are prohibited. Candidates must not take the booklet or OMR sheet out of the examination hall.Disqualification: Disclosing one's identity on the OMR sheet, outside of designated spaces, may result in disqualification.Scoring: There is no negative marking for incorrect answers.Examination Content: The test assesses knowledge across several scientific disciplines, including:Planetary Science: Topics such as the Earth's orbit, planetary distances, and natural satellites.Geology: Questions address rock classifications (igneous, metamorphic), mineralogy, seismology, and structural geology features, including faults, folds, and the Mohorovicic discontinuity.Environmental and Hydrological Sciences: Content includes the hydrological cycle, land erosion processes, soil formation, ecosystems, and environmental hazards.Atmospheric and Ocean Sciences: Topics include atmospheric layers, ozone, ocean currents, and various wave types.
An Economics examination test booklet (Subject Code: A-05-02) containing 50 multiple-choice questions.Examination Details:Logistics: The test is worth 100 marks with a duration of 1 hour and 15 minutes.Instructions: Candidates are required to use a blue or black ballpoint pen, return both the question booklet and the OMR sheet to the invigilator, and refrain from using electronic aids such as calculators. Candidates must not disclose their identity on the OMR sheet to avoid disqualification.Core Topics Covered:Microeconomics: The questions address theories of consumer preference, kinked demand curves, market structures, and psychological laws of consumption.Macroeconomics: The booklet covers various growth models (e.g., Solow, Harrod-Domar), India's Five-Year Plans, and concepts regarding high-powered money.Public Finance & Policy: Content includes taxation systems, public expenditure, fiscal and primary deficits, and various tax enquiry committees.Statistics: Statistical methods are tested, including arithmetic, geometric, and harmonic mean calculations, regression lines, and binomial distributions.Passage Analysis: The booklet includes a reading passage regarding environmental degradation. It contrasts developing and developed economies, noting that developing nations often face higher pollution due to early-stage industrialization and weaker anti-pollution regulations. In contrast, developed economies frequently shift toward service sectors and demonstrate a higher preference for environmental quality.
An Education Paper-II test booklet, bearing subject code A-06-02. The booklet contains 16 pages and includes 50 multiple-choice questions. The examination is allotted 1 hour and 15 minutes and carries a maximum of 100 marks.Examination Instructions:Verification: Candidates must inspect the booklet for missing or duplicate pages within the first 5 minutes.OMR Handling: Answers must be marked on the provided OMR sheet using a blue or black ballpoint pen. Test booklet and OMR sheet numbers must be entered correctly in the designated spaces.Prohibited Items: Use of calculators, log tables, or electronic devices is strictly forbidden.Integrity: Writing names or extraneous marks on the OMR sheet, other than required entries, is prohibited and may result in disqualification.Scoring: There is no negative marking for incorrect answers.Completion: The booklet and OMR sheet must be returned to the invigilators before leaving the examination hall.Rough Work: Must only be conducted in the designated space at the end of the booklet.Content Overview: The paper covers fundamental concepts in education, including:Educational Philosophy: Questions on Idealism, Pragmatism, Naturalism, Marxism, and epistemology.Educational Sociology and Psychology: Topics include social change, socialization, learning disabilities, intelligence testing (e.g., TAT), learning theories (reinforcement), and personality assessment.Research Methodology: Questions regarding hypothesis testing, sampling methods, laboratory experiments, data analysis, and types of research.
The question booklet for an English subject examination, identified by subject code A-07-02. The paper consists of 50 multiple-choice questions to be completed within 1 hour and 15 minutes, with a maximum of 100 marks.Examination Instructions for CandidatesVerification: Upon receiving the booklet, candidates have 5 minutes to verify that the booklet is not faulty, such as having missing, duplicate, or misordered pages.Entry Details: Candidates must enter their Hall Ticket Number on the cover page and ensure that the Test Booklet Number and OMR Sheet Number are correctly entered in the designated spaces.Answering: All responses must be marked on the provided OMR sheet using a blue or black ballpoint pen. If a candidate marks the OMR sheet in a place other than the designated circles, the response will not be evaluated.Prohibitions: The use of calculators, log tables, and electronic devices is strictly prohibited. Candidates must not disclose their identity on the OMR sheet, as doing so will lead to disqualification.Exam Procedures: There are no negative marks for incorrect answers. Rough work must be performed only at the end of the booklet. Upon completion, the question booklet and OMR sheet must be returned to the invigilator and cannot be removed from the examination hall.Scope of Content: The examination tests knowledge across various aspects of English literature, including:Matching writers with their pseudonyms or specific literary works.Identifying characters, literary movements (such as Pre-Raphaelite or Post-modernism), and critical terms.Recognizing specific poetic features, meters, and authors of famous literary lines.
An examination booklet for the subject "HINDI" (Subject Code: A-12-02). The paper contains 50 multiple-choice questions to be completed within 1 hour and 15 minutes, with a maximum of 100 marks.Examination Instructions:Protocol: Candidates must fill in their hall ticket number, use only a blue or black ballpoint pen, and return both the question booklet and the OMR answer sheet to the invigilators before leaving the examination hall.Prohibitions: The use of calculators, log tables, or any electronic devices is strictly prohibited.Marking: There is no negative marking for incorrect answers. Any unauthorized marks or personal information written on the OMR sheet, outside of designated areas, may result in disqualification.Question Content: The exam includes a variety of formats to assess knowledge of Hindi literature and criticism:Literary Factual Questions: Covers various topics, such as historical authors, the location of literary institutions (e.g., Nagari Pracharini Sabha), and definitions of specific literary traditions.Chronological Ordering: Asks candidates to arrange literary figures, novels, stories, and magazines in their correct historical sequence.Matching Exercises: Requires pairing authors with their specific works, critics with their theories, or poets with their verses.Assertion & Reasoning: Evaluates analytical reasoning by asking students to determine the accuracy of given statements and their corresponding logical arguments.Reading Comprehension: A provided passage analyzes the nature of literature, curiosity, and the distinction between scientific and literary pursuits, followed by related questions.
A History test booklet (Paper II) containing 50 multiple-choice questions. The examination is 1 hour and 15 minutes long, with a maximum of 100 marks.Exam InstructionsVerification: Candidates must check the booklet for any errors or missing pages within 5 minutes of starting.Stationery: Only blue or black ballpoint pens are permitted.Restrictions: Calculators, log tables, and other electronic devices are strictly prohibited.Scoring: There is no penalty for incorrect answers.Compliance: Candidates must write their Hall Ticket Number in the designated area. Marking the OMR sheet outside of allowed spaces or disclosing one's identity can lead to disqualification.Submission: The test booklet and OMR sheet must be returned to the invigilator at the end of the exam.Exam Content: The test covers a wide range of historical periods and themes:Ancient History: Topics include Paleolithic tools, Neolithic sites in Bihar, Harappan town planning, Jain and Buddhist philosophy, Sangam literature, and the Mathura School of Art.Medieval History: Issues addressed include Islamic law (Shariah), the Vachana movement, Vijaynagar history, the Mughal administrative structure (e.g., Mansabdars and Khalisa lands), and Maratha leadership.Colonial and Modern Era: Questions cover the East India Company's trade objectives, the impact of British agrarian changes, and the "Drain Theory" proposed by Dadabhai Naoroji.Reading Comprehension: The booklet includes a passage discussing the social status of women in Vengi Chalukyan society. Findings include:Women held an significant position as patrons, contributing to socio-religious and cultural activities.They enjoyed autonomy over their personal property, known as "stridhana," which they inherited at marriage.
A"LAW" subject test booklet (Subject Code: A-14-02) containing 50 multiple-choice questions. The examination allows 1 hour and 15 minutes to complete and carries a maximum of 100 marks.Examination InstructionsCandidates are required to verify the booklet immediately upon receipt, ensuring all pages and questions are present and in the correct order; discrepancies must be reported to the invigilator within 5 minutes.Responses must be marked on the provided OMR sheet using a blue or black ballpoint pen.There are no negative marks for incorrect answers.Prohibited items include calculators, log tables, and electronic devices.Candidates must not disclose their identity on the OMR sheet; writing a name or marking outside of the designated areas may lead to disqualification.The test booklet and OMR sheet must be returned to the invigilator before leaving the examination hall.Subject CoverageThe questions cover a wide range of legal domains, including Constitutional Law (e.g., amendments, fundamental rights, and the President's role).The content includes International Law (e.g., the UN, ICJ, Bernadotte case, and "Jus cogens") and Jurisprudence (e.g., schools of law, Kelsen's "pure theory," and natural law).The booklet also addresses Hindu and Mohammedan laws, Indian Penal Code provisions (e.g., Mensrea, general exceptions, and liability), Law of Torts, contract law, and labor laws regarding trade unions and industrial relations.A section including a passage for analysis explores the relationship between law and morals.
The instructions and content for a "LIFE SCIENCES" Paper II examination booklet.Examination Details and InstructionsStructure: The test consists of 50 multiple-choice questions.Marks and Duration: Candidates are allotted 1 hour and 15 minutes to complete the exam, which carries a maximum of 100 marks.Evaluation: There are no negative marks for incorrect answers.Conduct:Candidates must use only a Blue or Black ballpoint pen to mark the OMR sheet.The use of calculators, log tables, or electronic devices is strictly prohibited.Rough work must be conducted at the end of the booklet.Candidates must check the booklet for missing pages or discrepancies within the first five minutes of the exam.Writing one's name or adding identifying marks on the OMR sheet, outside of designated areas, may result in disqualification.Academic Subject Coverage: The examination evaluates knowledge across several Life Sciences disciplines:Molecular Biology & Genetics: Topics include DNA replication at the replication fork, mRNA processing, chromatin organization, Southern hybridization, gene definition, and evolutionary mechanisms such as isolating mechanisms, the synthetic theory of evolution, and fossil patterns.Metabolism & Physiology: Questions cover enzyme kinetics (e.g., Hexokinase and Glucokinase), the Krebs cycle, the electron transport chain, and respiratory quotient (R.Q.) calculations.Ecology: The paper addresses ecological succession, sources of air pollution, and information regarding notified biosphere reserves.General Biology: Additional topics include the complement cascade in immunology, mammalian dental formulas, and blood group systems.
A formal test booklet for a "Linguistics" examination (Paper II), identified by the subject code A-10-02.Examination LogisticsStructure: The test contains 50 multiple-choice questions totaling 100 marks.Time Limit: Candidates have 1 hour and 15 minutes to complete the paper.Verification: Within the first 5 minutes of the examination, candidates must verify that the booklet is complete and error-free.Evaluation: Answers must be recorded on an OMR sheet using a Blue or Black ballpoint pen. Marks placed outside the designated circles will not be evaluated.Prohibitions: Calculators, log tables, and electronic devices are prohibited. Additionally, candidates must not mark their names or identify themselves on the OMR sheet, as this may result in disqualification.Scoring & Submission: There is no negative marking for incorrect answers. The test booklet and OMR sheet must be returned to the invigilator at the end of the exam.Subject Matter: The examination evaluates candidates on various aspects of linguistics, including:Theoretical Linguistics: Questions cover topics such as sign systems (semiotics), language standardization, and grammatical theories like Transformational Generative grammar.Phonology and Syntax: The test explores concepts such as phonological features, word classes, syntax constraints, and metathesis.Language Studies: The content includes questions regarding language relationships (e.g., Dravidian and Indo-Aryan families), historical linguistics, and language universals.
A test booklet for a "Management" Paper II examination, presented in both English and Telugu.Examination Structure & LogisticsThe exam consists of 50 multiple-choice questions, totaling 100 marks.The total duration allowed for the examination is 1 hour and 15 minutes.There is no negative marking for incorrect answers.Candidates must use a blue or black ballpoint pen to mark responses on the OMR sheet.The use of calculators, log tables, or other electronic devices is strictly prohibited.Instructions for CandidatesCandidates have 5 minutes at the start to verify that the booklet is complete and matches the cover page description.Candidates must enter their Hall Ticket Number in the provided space. Writing one's name or any identifying marks on the OMR sheet, other than in designated areas, may result in disqualification.Both the question booklet and the OMR sheet must be returned to the invigilator before leaving the examination hall.Subject ScopeThe questions cover various management disciplines, including:Economics: Market competition types and the demand for necessities.Strategy & Marketing: Concepts such as the Growth Share Matrix, Corporate Venturing, and the "4 Ps" of marketing.Financial Management: Objectives, bond issuance, and dividend theories.Human Resources & Behavior: Labor acts, job analysis, organizational behavior, and trade unionism.Operations Research: Linear programming, inventory models (EOQ), and plant layouts.
The instructions and content for a Mathematical Sciences examination.Exam OverviewTotal Questions: 50 multiple-choice questions.Maximum Marks: 100.Duration: 1 hour 15 minutes.Candidate InstructionsVerification: Candidates must verify the question booklet for missing or duplicate pages within the first 5 minutes of the examination.OMR Guidelines: Responses must be marked on the provided OMR sheet using a blue or black ballpoint pen.Disqualification: Writing one's name or any identifying marks on the OMR sheet, other than in designated areas, may result in disqualification.Prohibited Items: The use of calculators, log tables, or other electronic devices is strictly prohibited.Negative Marking: There is no negative marking for incorrect answers.Return Policy: Candidates must return the question booklet and OMR sheet to the invigilator before leaving the examination hall.Content OverviewThe examination consists of 50 multiple-choice questions covering various topics in mathematical sciences. The test includes, but is not limited to, the following areas:Calculus and Real Analysis: Questions covering limits, series, and integration.Linear Algebra: Topics include linear transformations, matrix rank, and eigenvalues.Complex Analysis: Problems involving analytic functions, residues, and entire functions.Algebra: Group theory, field theory, and ring theory.Differential Equations: Ordinary and partial differential equations, and calculus of variations.Statistics and Operations Research: Probability distributions, sampling methods, queueing systems, and game theory.
A Philosophy test booklet (Code: A-18-02) containing 50 multiple-choice questions. The examination is designed to be completed within 1 hour and 15 minutes, with a total of 100 marks.Exam Instructions and Procedures:Booklet Verification: Candidates must verify the completeness of the booklet (pages and questions) within the first 5 minutes of the examination.Answering: Responses must be indicated in the provided OMR sheet using a blue or black ballpoint pen. Marking outside the designated circles will result in the response not being evaluated.Prohibitions: The use of calculators, log tables, or any electronic devices is strictly prohibited. Writing one's name or adding extra marks on the OMR sheet—outside of specified areas—is prohibited and may lead to disqualification.Scoring: There are no negative marks for incorrect answers.Submission: Both the test booklet and the OMR answer sheet must be returned to the invigilator at the end of the examination.Content Coverage:The test assesses knowledge across two major philosophical traditions:Indian Philosophy: Topics include the Upanisads, the Bhagavad Gita, the Doctrine of Dependent Origination, and Astangayoga. It also examines specific schools and concepts such as Nyaya, Vaisesika (atoms), Sankhya (Prakrti and Purusa), Jainism, Buddhism, and Advaita/Visistadvaita Vedanta.Western Philosophy: Questions cover historical and contemporary thinkers, including Socrates, Thales, Spinoza, Locke, Hume, Kant, Nietzsche, Husserl, Heidegger, and Gilbert Ryle. The material spans areas such as phenomenology, existentialism, and linguistic analysis.
The instructions and content for the Physical Sciences Paper-II examination.Examination Details:The test consists of 50 multiple-choice questions.The exam duration is 1 hour and 15 minutes, with a maximum of 100 marks.The designated subject code is A-16-02.Candidate Instructions:Candidates must write their Hall Ticket number in the provided space.Booklets should be inspected within the first 5 minutes for defects or missing pages.Candidates must enter the Test Booklet and OMR sheet numbers in the designated locations.Responses must be indicated on the OMR sheet by darkening the correct circle using a blue or black ballpoint pen.No marks or names should be written on the OMR sheet outside of allowed areas, as this may result in disqualification.Calculators, log tables, and electronic devices are prohibited.There is no negative marking for incorrect answers.Upon completion, the booklet and OMR sheet must be returned to the invigilator.Rough work is only permitted at the end of the booklet.Test Content:The test covers various advanced topics in physical sciences, including matrix algebra, differential equations, Fourier series, and vector calculus.Physics concepts include electromagnetism, wave packets, quantum oscillators, relativistic dynamics, and luminescence.Electronics topics include p-n junctions, semiconductor doping, operational amplifiers, and logic circuits.
A test booklet for a Political Science examination. The following are the key administrative details and rules for candidates:Examination Specifications: The paper consists of 50 multiple-choice questions, with a maximum mark of 100. The allotted time is 1 hour and 15 minutes. The booklet contains 24 pages and is identified by the code A-19-02.Initial Procedures: Candidates must write their Hall Ticket Number in the designated space. The first 5 minutes are for verifying the integrity of the booklet; candidates should report any missing pages or errors to the invigilator within this timeframe. Booklet and OMR sheet numbers must be recorded in the specified fields.Answering and Submission: Responses must be indicated by darkening the appropriate circles on the OMR sheet using a blue or black ballpoint pen. Marking outside the designated circles will prevent evaluation. There are no negative marks for incorrect answers. Candidates must return the booklet and OMR sheet to the invigilator at the end of the exam.Exam Constraints: Rough work must be performed in the space provided at the end of the booklet. The use of calculators, log tables, and other electronic devices is strictly prohibited. Candidates are warned that writing their name or creating any identifiable marks on the OMR sheet, outside of the allotted space, may result in disqualification.Question Content: The test covers diverse political science topics, including Kautilya's philosophy, International Relations theories, Public Administration, Communitarianism, Indian political history, and electoral reform committees. The paper also concludes with comprehension questions based on a provided reading passage.
A "Psychology Paper II" test booklet (Code A-20-02) consisting of 50 multiple-choice questions. The examination is worth a maximum of 100 marks and allows for 1 hour and 15 minutes of completion time.Exam InstructionsVerification: Candidates must examine the booklet within the first 5 minutes to ensure no pages or questions are missing.Answering: Responses must be indicated on an OMR sheet using a blue or black ballpoint pen. Marking anywhere else on the OMR sheet or writing identifying marks may result in disqualification.Prohibitions: The use of calculators, log tables, or other electronic devices is strictly prohibited.Scoring: There are no negative marks for incorrect answers.Submission: The test booklet and OMR sheet must be returned to the invigilator at the end of the examination.Content CoverageThe questions cover a broad range of psychological topics, including:Perception: Topics include motion parallax, Gestalt principles of organization, and monocular cues in depth perception.Memory: Concepts regarding mnemonics, the "saving method" of memory, sensory storage, and the distinction between episodic and semantic memory.Learning and Behavior: Questions address behaviourist perspectives, operant conditioning models, and reinforcement schedules.Personality and Development: Subjects include trait/type theories, Introversion/Extroversion, Gardner’s multiple intelligence theory, and Freud’s stages of development.Biological Psychology: The functions of the thalamus, the limbic system's role in emotion, nervous system divisions, and neurotransmitters related to depression.Statistics and Research: Methodology topics such as standard normal distribution, test validity, reliability, and various scaling methods (e.g., Likert, Thurstone).
A Public Administration examination test booklet.Examination LogisticsDuration and Structure: The test consists of 50 multiple-choice questions to be completed in 1 hour and 15 minutes, with a maximum of 100 marks.Candidate Procedures: Candidates must record their Hall Ticket Number on the cover page. They have a 5-minute window at the start of the exam to verify the booklet for errors, such as missing or duplicate pages.Evaluation Guidelines: Answers must be recorded on an OMR sheet using only a Blue or Black ballpoint pen. There is no negative marking for incorrect answers.Integrity Rules: Using calculators or log tables is prohibited. Disqualification may occur if candidates write their name or disclose their identity on the OMR sheet.Subject Areas CoveredThe examination covers various aspects of public administration and related fields, including:Administrative Concepts: Topics such as social welfare administration, administrative corruption, decision-making theories, and development administration.Governance and Law: Questions regarding the Indian Constitution, linguistic minority commissioners, and citizen charters.Research Methodology: Items related to research methods, statistics, and hypothesis testing.ICT in Rural Development: A reading passage analyzes the challenges of implementing Information and Communication Technologies (ICT) in rural India. It emphasizes critical factors for success, including connectivity, content localization, capacity building, and long-term sustainability.
The guidelines and content for a Sociology Paper II examination (Subject Code: A-22-02). The test consists of 50 multiple-choice questions to be completed in one hour and fifteen minutes, with a total of 100 marks available.Examination Instructions:Candidates must verify that the booklet is complete (pages and questions) within the first five minutes and replace it if any discrepancies are found.Hall Ticket numbers, Test Booklet numbers, and OMR serial numbers must be recorded in the specified spaces.Only Blue or Black ballpoint pens are allowed; the use of calculators or log tables is strictly prohibited.Rough work must be restricted to the designated pages at the end of the booklet.Responses must be marked only within the circles on the OMR sheet; markings outside these circles will not be evaluated.Writing one's name or any identifying marks on the OMR sheet—outside of the allocated space—may result in disqualification.There is no negative marking for incorrect answers.The test booklet and OMR sheet must be returned to the invigilator at the end of the session; removing them from the hall is prohibited.Content Overview:The examination covers various sociological concepts, including social stratification, community characteristics, education, marriage types, conflict theory, and social research methodologies.Question types include multiple-choice items, assertion-reasoning pairs, and matching exercises involving notable sociologists.The final section features a passage analyzing Erving Goffman’s dramaturgical theory, which explores the analogy between theatrical performance and everyday social interaction.
The guidelines and structure for a Telugu examination paper (Subject Code: A-23-02). The test consists of 50 multiple-choice questions, totaling 100 marks, and must be completed within 1 hour and 15 minutes.Examination InstructionsPreparation: Candidates must write their Hall Ticket Number in the designated space. Upon receiving the booklet, candidates have 5 minutes to verify that it is complete and error-free; any faulty booklets must be replaced within this window.OMR Guidelines: Responses must be indicated on the OMR sheet using a blue or black ballpoint pen. Marks made outside the specified circles will not be evaluated. To prevent disqualification, candidates must not write their names or other identifying marks on the OMR sheet outside of the designated areas.Rules & Conduct: The use of calculators, log tables, or electronic devices is strictly prohibited. There are no negative marks for incorrect answers. Rough work must be performed only in the space provided at the end of the booklet. Candidates must return both the question booklet and the OMR sheet to the invigilator upon completion and are not permitted to remove them from the examination hall.Content OverviewThe questions evaluate knowledge across various areas of Telugu study, including:Literature, poetic works, and authors.Folk literature, songs, and ballads.Linguistic concepts, grammar, and theories of aesthetics (Rasa).Historical contexts, inscriptions, and cultural figures.
General Examination DetailsSubject: The examination subject is Urdu, with the subject code A-24-02.Format: The test consists of 50 multiple-choice questions and is worth a maximum of 100 marks.Duration: The total time allotted for the examination is 1 hour and 15 minutes.Instructions for CandidatesBooklet Verification: Upon receiving the booklet, candidates must write their Hall Ticket Number in the provided space. Candidates have 5 minutes to check the booklet for missing pages, serial discrepancies, or other faults, and must report any issues to the invigilator immediately.Marking Responses: All responses must be marked on the provided OMR sheet by darkening the circle corresponding to the correct answer (A, B, C, or D).Prohibitions: Using calculators, log tables, or electronic devices is strictly prohibited. Candidates must use only a Blue or Black ballpoint pen.Rules of Conduct:There is no negative marking for incorrect answers.Writing one's name or making extraneous marks on the OMR sheet—other than in the allotted space—may lead to disqualification.Rough work should be done at the end of the booklet.The question booklet and OMR sheet must be returned to the invigilator before leaving the hall.Exam ContentThe examination contains 50 questions regarding Urdu literature, historical works, linguistic analysis, and notable authors.
The questions cover various academic and general topics, which are summarized below:Research Methodology: The exam includes questions on the formulation of hypotheses via exploratory research, ethics in research, and the required structure of a formal research report.Education and Governance: This section covers the establishment of the University Grants Commission (UGC), the governing principles of the parliamentary system, and the necessity of autonomy in higher education. It also addresses the school's role as a social agent and the impact of a teacher's classroom behavior.Information and Communication Technology (ICT): Questions focus on technical concepts, including data storage media, the definition of LAN, computer memory units, and the debugging process in programming.Reading Comprehension: The paper provides a passage discussing the economic advantages and competitive requirements of export-oriented industries.Data Interpretation and Reasoning: The assessment utilizes data from pie charts and bar graphs to test numerical and analytical skills. There are also sections dedicated to logical reasoning, including number sequences, pattern recognition, and code deciphering.Environmental and General Awareness: This section includes questions regarding the term "ecosystem", the classification of greenhouse gases, and international regulations such as the Bern Convention concerning copyright.
The AP SET 2019 General Paper (Paper 1), covering several academic and analytical domains:Teaching and Higher Education: Effective teaching is characterized by the realization of objectives, the integration of creativity, and the provision of new learning experiences. It is defined as a purposeful set of activities aimed at facilitating and motivating learning. Historically, significant centers of learning in Ancient India included Nalanda, Takshasila, Vikramasila, and Odontopuri. Educational policy in India has been shaped by various committees, such as the Radha Krishna, Mudaliar, and Kothari Commissions.Research and Communication: Research methodology involves various approaches, with ethics being particularly critical during data collection and interpretation. Bibliographies are essential for supporting future research. In classroom settings, barriers to communication include physical distance affecting visibility, teacher verbosity, and the use of irrelevant illustrations. An effective communicator is evaluated by their ability to satisfy the needs of the target audience.Environment and ICT: Environmental protection is supported by legal precedents like the M.C. Mehta Vs Union of India case. Man-made environmental degradation stems from factors such as urbanization, poverty, population growth, and deforestation. International efforts include the Paris Agreement, which aims to limit global temperature rise. ICT topics cover the "digital divide," the role of FTP (File Transfer Protocol), and the identification of open-source software like Mozilla Firefox.Logical Reasoning and Analysis: The paper incorporates mathematical and analytical tasks, including pattern recognition, coding, and data interpretation based on manufacturing statistics and percentage calculations. Additionally, it explores opinion survey dynamics, noting that survey responses are frequently influenced by the respondent's social hierarchy.
The official question paper for the General Paper on Teaching and Research Aptitude for the AP-SET 2021 examination. The content is presented bilingually in English and Telugu, covering a wide range of academic and aptitude-based topics.Key Content Areas:Teaching Aptitude: The paper assesses understanding of various teaching methods, such as lecture and project-based methods, micro-teaching skills, and the distinct levels of teaching—reflective, understanding, and memory levels.Research Aptitude: It covers the research process, including the formulation of research problems and hypotheses, various research types (exploratory, descriptive, experimental), and metrics for research journal quality, such as impact factor and h-index.Communication & ICT: Questions address barriers to effective communication, internal institutional communication methods, and basic computer knowledge, including file extensions, server functionality, and the application of ICT in teaching.Environment & Ecology: The document includes assessments regarding air pollution incidents (e.g., Chernobyl, Bhopal), ozone layer depletion, and the conservation of Indian fauna through national parks and sanctuaries.Higher Education: Sections involve questions regarding the UGC Act of 1956 and the administrative objectives of the Rashtriya Uchchatar Shiksha Abhiyan (RUSA).Data Interpretation & Logical Reasoning: The paper features various logical reasoning tasks, including syllogisms, series completion, mathematical word problems, and data analysis tasks based on provided bar graphs and pie charts.Reading Comprehension: A passage is included that describes the onset of the Indian Monsoon and its effects on wildlife behavior, specifically regarding pied cuckoos, frogs, and predators.
A General Paper on Teaching and Research Aptitude (Series B), covering diverse academic topics:Educational Policy and History: Includes questions regarding the National Policy on Education 2020 (NEP-2020) structure, B.Ed. program timelines, and the five pillars of the policy. It also addresses ancient Indian education concepts and centers, such as 'Ghatikasthanam'.Research and Teaching Aptitude: Details research ethics, Ph.D. thesis repositories like Shodhganga, and the process of gap analysis. Teaching methodologies discussed include memory, understanding, and reflective levels, along with learner-centric methods and evaluation types, such as diagnostic, formative, and summative.ICT and Communication: Covers IT concepts including quantum computing (Qubit), ROM, FTP, and the three pillars of IT governance. Communication topics encompass mass media functions, circular communication, limitations of oral communication, and various communication barriers.Environmental Studies: Features questions on significant environmental summits (such as the Kyoto Protocol, Montreal Protocol, and Paris Agreement), specific ecological sites like Silent Valley, and various national parks.Reasoning and Data Analysis: The document includes quantitative data interpretation based on graphs showing candidate pass rates over five years. It also contains logical reasoning tasks, including syllogisms, sequence completion, and arithmetic problems related to elections and profit/loss calculations.
The AP SET 2024 English Paper II examination.Examination DetailsThe paper contains 100 multiple-choice questions with a maximum of 200 marks.The total duration allotted for the exam is 2 hours.There are no negative marks for incorrect answers.The use of calculators, log tables, or electronic devices is strictly prohibited.Candidates must use only blue or black ballpoint pens.Instructions for CandidatesCandidates must record their Hall Ticket Number on the cover page.Upon receiving the booklet, candidates have 5 minutes to verify its contents; faulty booklets must be reported and replaced immediately.Test Booklet and OMR sheet numbers must be cross-entered in the respective fields.Responses must be marked by fully darkening the corresponding circle on the OMR sheet; incomplete or semi-filled bubbles will not be evaluated.Writing names or identifying marks outside the designated OMR spaces will lead to disqualification.Rough work should be conducted only at the end of the booklet.At the conclusion of the exam, the original OMR sheet must be handed over to the invigilator, though candidates may retain the carbon copy and their used question booklet.Content OverviewThe assessment consists of 100 objective-type questions covering diverse topics, including English literature, literary theory, linguistics, and translation studies.
The Telangana SET 2017 General Studies (Paper I) question booklet. It is designed with the following structure and guidelines:Examination DetailsFormat: The exam consists of 60 multiple-choice questions, with candidates required to answer 50.Duration and Marks: The total time allowed is 1 hour and 15 minutes, with a maximum of 100 marks available.Administrative Rules: Candidates must inspect the booklet for errors within the first 5 minutes. Responses must be marked on an OMR sheet using a blue or black ballpoint pen; markings outside designated circles will not be evaluated.Prohibitions: Electronic devices, such as calculators and log tables, are strictly prohibited. Additionally, there is no negative marking for incorrect answers.Subject Coverage: The examination assesses candidates on a broad range of topics, including:Data Interpretation and Reasoning: The booklet includes questions based on statistical tables regarding company departments, as well as logical reasoning exercises involving coding, series completion, and deductive arguments.Education and Research: The questions evaluate understanding of teaching methodologies, classroom environments, research characteristics, hypothesis formulation, and the functions of the University Grants Commission (UGC).General Knowledge and Environment: The content addresses constitutional rights, such as equality of opportunity in employment, environmental pollutants, and information and communication technology (ICT) terms, including WWW and GPRS.Reading Comprehension: The paper concludes with a reading passage that discusses the relationship between social sciences, economic demands, and the erosion of moral values in physical sciences.
RRB ALP & Technicians recruitment examination held on August 14, 2018, during the morning shift (10:00 AM - 11:00 AM). The exam was conducted at the iON Digital Zone iDZ Anantapur.The paper comprises 75 questions designed to evaluate candidates on General Awareness, General Science, Mathematics, and General Intelligence and Reasoning.Key Content Areas:General Awareness: This section includes questions regarding historical, political, and current events. Specific topics covered include the 'Freedom Trail' location, the 2017 appointment of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG), the Chief Minister of Kerala as of February 2018, Viswanathan Anand’s 2017 World Rapid Fire Chess Championship victory, the full form of GST, and the date India's capital shifted from Calcutta to Delhi.General Science: The science segment tests foundational concepts in physics, chemistry, and biology. Key subject matter includes the purpose of an odometer, the causes of metal corrosion, elements in the modern periodic table, the speed of sound at 0°C, the transportation function of blood components, and how an embryo receives nutrition.Mathematics and Reasoning: These questions involve logical and quantitative problem-solving. Examples include calculating square roots, analyzing Venn diagrams, solving profit and loss problems, finding roots of quadratic equations, and completing letter-based series.The document presents the questions alongside multiple-choice options, including indicators of the candidate's chosen option and the status of each question (answered or not answered).
RRB ALP Technicians examination held on August 14, 2018, in Shift 2. The paper comprises a variety of multiple-choice questions spanning science, mathematics, reasoning, and general knowledge.General Science and BiologyChemistry: Topics included the identification of dry ice (solid carbon dioxide), elements in Mendeleev's periodic table, the acidic nature of non-metal oxides, and devices converting chemical energy to electrical energy.Biology: Questions focused on mitosis stages, the process of implantation, reproductive methods in Hydra, and comparative intestine lengths in various animals.Physics: Content covered uniform circular motion, calculations of work done by gravity, power as the rate of work, and electrical current in a hydrogen atom.Mathematics and ReasoningMathematics: The paper included problems on ratios, trigonometry involving angles of elevation, HCF calculations, number series completion, and calculating averages.Reasoning: Logic-based sections tested candidates on syllogisms, Venn diagram representations, and identifying mirror or water images.General Knowledge and Current AffairsGeography and History: Topics featured Kerala as India's "Spice Garden" and the foundational history of Delhi/Indraprastha.Culture and Sports: Questions addressed the 2016 Malayalam film Pulimurugan, the author of An Unsuitable Boy (Karan Johar), and regional teams in the Hockey India League.Politics and Administration: The paper included inquiries regarding the 2017 Filmfare Lifetime Achievement Award recipient (Vinod Khanna), the 2018 UGC Chairman, the 2017-18 Economic Survey, and assembly by-elections in Chennai.
RRB Technician previous year question paper from the exam held on August 14, 2018, during the third shift (4:00 PM – 5:00 PM) at the ION Digital Zone iDZ Lahowal. The paper consists of various sections testing knowledge in science, mathematics, reasoning, and current affairs.Key Content Areas:General Science: Covers concepts in physics, chemistry, and biology. Topics include kinetic energy, power, electrical resistance, mirror reflections, chemical formulas (e.g., propane), acid-base indicators, metal properties, human reproductive hormones, and energy storage in the body.Mathematics: Includes problems related to algebra, ratios, geometry, time-speed-distance, and work-rate calculations for pipes and tanks.General Knowledge & Current Affairs: Questions feature the 2016 Hindi film Dangal, the statue of Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam at Rameswaram, the 'SBI Exclusif' banking product, and notable Indian-American leaders like Satya Nadella and Ajit Pai. It also covers sports (2017 Men's Hockey Asia Cup) and geographical facts, such as the river near Jabalpur.Reasoning & Analytical Ability: The assessment tests logical skills through Venn diagrams, blood relations, mirror images, series completion, and evaluation of arguments, statements, and assumptions.Data Interpretation: The document includes data tables detailing the mid-term and final exam results for Class 10, sections A and B.
RRB (Railway Recruitment Boards) ALP & Technicians question paper from the exam held on August 17, 2018, between 10:00 AM and 11:00 AM. The paper consists of 75 multiple-choice questions provided in both Hindi and English.The content of the exam includes the following areas:Mathematics: Covers topics such as percentages, averages, work-time calculations, geometry, algebra, and trigonometric functions.General Science: Includes questions on physics (force, inertia, sound frequency, electrical circuits), chemistry (pH levels, atomic structure, metal oxides), and biology (plant reproduction, growth hormones, plant tissues).General Knowledge & Current Affairs: Features questions on 2017 sports events (Hockey Asia Cup, French Open), Grammy awards, historical figures like Emperor Akbar, and various corporate appointments as of 2018 (e.g., Nokia CEO, USIBC 2017 awardees).Reasoning and Logic: Comprises problems involving pattern matching, letter clusters, mirror/water images, Venn diagrams, and logical assumptions or conclusions based on provided statements.The document also includes status indicators for specific questions, showing whether they were "Answered" or "Not Answered" by the candidate.
RRB ALP & Technicians exam, conducted on August 17, 2018, during the second shift at the ION Digital Zone iDZ 2 Patia.Mathematics and AptitudeThe paper includes mathematical problems covering simple interest, speed-time-distance, LCM, divisibility rules, and algebra.Geometry and physics-related math questions involve rhombus properties, pentadecagon diagonals, and convex lens calculations.Data interpretation tasks are based on family expenditure charts.General ScienceChemistry: Covers redox reactions, the history of the periodic table, molecular weight of gases, and chemical reactions, such as the effect of HCl on washing soda and CO2 in lime water.Biology: Includes questions on the basic unit of taxonomy, vitamin deficiencies linked to excessive bleeding, and reproductive methods in organisms.Physics: Topics include kinetic energy, the universal gravitational constant, and absolute refractive indices.General Knowledge and Current Affairs (as of Feb 2018)Appointments and Figures: Includes the appointment of Dr. Soumya Swaminathan to the WHO, Kalyan Krishnamurthy as Flipkart's CEO, and President Ram Nath Kovind’s home state, Uttar Pradesh.Historical and Sports Context: Mentions Vidarbha winning the Ranji Trophy and the Champaran Satyagraha regarding indigo farming.ReasoningThe reasoning section features analytical questions, including syllogisms, mirror and water images, blood relations, alphabet series, and Venn diagrams.
The RRB ALP & Technicians examination conducted on August 17, 2018, during the third shift from 4:00 PM to 5:00 PM. The paper comprises 75 objective questions designed to assess candidates across several subject areas.Key Content Sections:Mathematics and Logical Reasoning: The paper includes problems on algebraic equations, number series, LCM, percentages, averages, work-time-distance calculations, pipe-and-cistern problems, and geometric interpretations using Venn diagrams and bar graphs. Logical reasoning sections evaluate critical thinking through statement-conclusion analysis, figure sequences, and mirror or water image identification.Science: The test covers physics (sound waves, acceleration, gravity, spherical mirrors, energy), chemistry (atomic classifications, properties of metals, pH indicators, phosphorus atomicity), and biology (human minerals, plant tissues, reproduction).General Knowledge: Current events and general knowledge questions focus on the Indian Defence Minister (as of February 2018), regional festivals like the Sangai Festival, sports history (2016 Women’s Hockey Trophy, R. Ashwin’s test wicket record), political appointees, and historical figures such as the Chinese Buddhist monk Hiuen Tsang.
The Railway Recruitment Board (RRB) Technicians Grade I examination, which was conducted in multiple sessions on December 19 and 20, 2024.Exam Structure and Marking:Each correct answer is awarded 1 mark.Each incorrect answer incurs a penalty of 1/3 mark.Correct options are explicitly designated in the document with a green tick icon.Content Coverage:The examination covers a broad range of technical and general subjects, including:Mathematics: Topics encompass algebra (quadratic equations, arithmetic progressions), geometry (triangles, cones, circles), trigonometry, probability, and statistics (calculating mean, median, and mode).Physics & Electronics: The syllabus includes classical mechanics (force, work, power, energy), electromagnetism (induced EMF, solenoids, circuits, resistors), and electronics (semiconductor physics, transistors, p-n junctions, and 8051/8085 microcontrollers).Computer & Information Technology: Questions assess proficiency in MS Office (Word, Excel, PowerPoint), operating system operations (Windows/Linux file management), hardware components (PCB, GPUs), and network infrastructure (LAN topologies, email/web protocols).General Knowledge & Reasoning: This section covers the Indian Constitution, significant historical acts, geography (national parks, mining deposits), sports current affairs, and logical reasoning, including series completion, family relationship mapping, and data sufficiency puzzles.
The AP POLYCET 2023 Question Paper with Solutions, featuring questions from Mathematics, Physics, and Chemistry.Exam InformationExam Mode: Offline (pen and paper).Duration: 2 hours (120 minutes).Total Questions: 120 multiple-choice questions.Marking Scheme: Each question carries 1 mark, with no negative marking.Syllabus: Topics from Mathematics, Physics, and Chemistry of Class 10.Structure: Divided into three sections:Mathematics (60 questions).Physics (30 questions).Chemistry (30 questions).Selected Question Examples and ConceptsMathematics:The sum of the exponents of prime factors in 156 is 3.For disjoint sets A and B, n(A cup B) = n(A) + n(B).The collection of "brilliant students" is not a set because it is subjective.Physics:The principle of the method of mixtures states that net heat lost (A) equals net heat gained (B), so A=B.The speed of light in a medium with a refractive index of 2 is 1.5 * 10^8 m/s.Farsightedness is called hypermetropia.Kirchhoff's junction law is based on the conservation of charge.Chemistry:acetic acid solution remains red when tested with red litmus paper.The hardest substance in the body is calcium phosphate.Methyl orange turns red in acidic solutions.
The POLYCET 2021 examination, with questions from Mathematics, Physics, and Chemistry, and a total time limit of 2 hours.Mathematics Section (SECTION-I)It covers topics like quadratic polynomials and their zeroes, linear equations, quadratic equations, degree of an equation, arithmetic progression (AP), coordinate geometry concepts such as centroid, parallelogram vertices, distance between points, and distance between tops of poles.Other topics include: similarity of triangles, tangents to a circle, surface area of a cuboid, slant height of a cone, volume of a sphere, and trigonometry questions.It also features questions on probability, statistics (median, mode, mean, central tendency), properties of numbers (HCF, LCM, composite number, irrational number), logarithms, sets, and polynomials.Physics Section (SECTION-II)Topics covered include laws of refraction and their components (incident ray, refracted ray, normal), focal plane, magnifying lens, image formation by a convex lens, and matching physical quantities with their SI units (Electric charge, Electric potential, Ampere, Coulomb, Volt).It also contains questions on: heating elements (e.g., electric iron material), properties of lenses, resistivity and materials (insulators, conductors, semiconductors), Ohm's law and related concepts (potential difference, current, graph, units, conductivity), and units of lens power (Dioptre).Human eye and vision defects (accommodation, presbyopia, myopia) are covered.Magnetism topics include magnetic field lines, SI units of magnetic flux and magnetic flux density, electromagnetism's invention, and magnetic flux density definition.Heat and thermodynamics questions include: final temperature of a mixture, definition of a calorie, identifying the body at a higher temperature, specific heat, and examples/non-examples of refraction.Other topics include: refractive index and speed of light and angle of refraction when light passes from air to glass.Chemistry Section (SECTION-III)It covers atomic structure and quantum numbers (Principal, Azimuthal, Magnetic, Spin), Bohr's atomic model, and maximum electrons in p-orbital.Electronic configuration and related principles (Aufbau, Pauli's exclusion) are included.Periodic table topics: elements arranged by atomic number, Lanthanoids, elements in the 3rd period, and valency of a VA group element.Chemical bonding: Ionic bond formation (transfer/electrostatic attraction), noble gas identification, formula formation, and triple bond composition.Metallurgy: reactivity of gold, impurities in ore (gangue), corrosion (anode/cathode behavior), manganese minerals, and corrosion prevention methods.Organic Chemistry: catenation, types of hydrocarbons (alkanes), melting point trend with molecular formula, carbon bond types, and functional groups (-CONH₂).Acids, Bases, and Salts: litmus paper test for an acid, olfactory indicator property (odour), gas evolved CLICK HERE FOR THE ANSWER TO THE POLYCET 2021 QUESTION PAPER
The POLYCET-2021 examination, with a total of 120 full marks and a time limit of 2 hours. The paper is divided into three sections: Mathematics, Physics, and Chemistry.Mathematics (Questions 1-50):Covers topics like Trigonometry, Probability (e.g., probability of 53 Thursdays in a non-leap year, probability of drawing a red ball), and Statistics (e.g., formula for median, arithmetic mean, mode).Includes number systems (e.g., smallest odd composite number, rational/irrational numbers), logarithms, and Set Theory (e.g., set of even prime numbers, finite sets).Features Polynomials and Linear Equations (e.g., number of zeroes of a biquadratic polynomial, product of zeroes, quadratic polynomial formula, linear/quadratic equations).Also covers Arithmetic Progression (e.g., common difference, finding 'x' in an AP), Coordinate Geometry (e.g., centroid, distance formula), Geometry (e.g., similar triangles, equidistant point from vertices), and Mensuration (e.g., total surface area of a cuboid, volume of a sphere).Physics (Questions 51-90):Deals with Optics (e.g., Dioptre unit, least distance of distinct vision, Snell's law, focal length, refraction examples, refractive index, magnifying lens).Covers Magnetism and Electromagnetism (e.g., properties of magnetic field lines, SI units of magnetic flux/density, invention from electromagnetism, magnetic flux density definition, compass needle direction).Includes Thermal Physics (e.g., heat required to raise water temperature, comparing temperatures, specific heat, heat transfer).Discusses Electricity (e.g., definition of electric current, Ohm's law, device to measure potential difference, resistivity/resistance, voltage-current graph, 1 Joule/1 Coulomb, heating element material).Covers Human Eye and Vision Defects (e.g., principle of eye function, myopia, accommodation of eye lens).Chemistry (Questions 91-120):Focuses on Metallurgy (e.g., impurities in ore, corrosion, minerals containing manganese).Includes Organic Chemistry concepts (e.g., catenation, alkanes, melting point of hydrocarbons, carbon bonds, functional groups).Covers Acids and Bases (e.g., litmus test, olfactory indicator, antacid, reaction of acid, nature of non-metal oxide).Features Atomic Structure and Periodic Table (e.g., Bohr's model, maximum electrons in p-orbital, electronic configuration principles, quantum numbers, Modern Periodic Table organization, number of elements in 3rd period, lanthanoids, valency).Discusses Chemical Bonding (e.g., ionic bond formation, formula from valency, sigma/pi bonds.Mentions the free state of gold.CLICK HERE FOR THE ANSWER TO THE POLYCET 2021 QUESTION PAPER
the Indian Railway Recruitment Boards Level-1 Posts CEN-02/2018. The test material is provided by knowledgegainers.in, which also offers online mock tests for SSC, Railways, and BANK Exams.Test Details:Subject: Level 1Test Dates and Times:04/12/2018, 9:00 AM - 10:30 AM (Test Center: Star Wave Digital Solutions)05/11/2018, 4:00 PM - 5:30 PM (Test Center: iON Digital Zone IDZ)Key Instructions for Candidates:Correct options are shown in green color with a tick icon.The option selected by the candidate is indicated by the "Chosen option" on the top right of the question.Question IDs and Option IDs are to be used for raising objections.Sample Questions and Correct Answers: The document includes questions on various subjects, including Mathematics, Science, and General Knowledge.Simple Interest Ratio (Q.1): The ratio of two sums invested at 15% simple interest for 3 years and 12% simple interest for 5 years, yielding the same interest, is 4:3.Involuntary Actions (Q.34): Involuntary actions, including blood pressure, salivation, and vomiting, are controlled by the Medulla.Chemical Formula (Q.27): The chemical formula of Plaster of ParisAlkaline Earth Metal (Q.21): Potassium is NOT an alkaline earth metal.Distance in Age Problem (Q.56): The distance covered is 14.4 km.Prime Number (Q.89): 163 is a prime number.Geospatial World Excellence Award-2018 (Q.41): Odisha won this award for a successful IT application.HCF (Q.15): The HCF of 117 and 195 is 39.
RRB GROUP-D 2018 పరీక్షకు సంబంధించిన మునుపటి ప్రశ్నపత్రం (తెలుగులో).పత్రం యొక్క ముఖ్య అంశాలు:శీర్షిక: RRB GROUP-D 15 MOCK TESTS.కలిగి ఉన్నవి:15 మాక్ టెస్ట్లు.1200+ మునుపటి RRB గణిత బిట్స్ వివరణ.2000 మునుపటి GROUP-D, NTPC GS/GK ప్రశ్నలు PDF (చేతితో రాసినవి) కేవలం తెలుగులో కలవు.చెల్లుబాటు & రుసుము (Validity & Fee): 6 నెలలు, ₹160/-.పరీక్ష వివరాలు (CEN-02/2018 Level-1 Posts):పరీక్ష తేదీ: 15/10/2018.పరీక్ష సమయం: 9:00 AM-10:30 AM.సబ్జెక్ట్: లెవల్ 1.ప్రశ్నల నమూనా: ఇందులో జనరల్ సైన్స్, గణితం, రీజనింగ్ మరియు జనరల్ నాలెడ్జ్/కరెంట్ అఫైర్స్ కి సంబంధించిన ప్రశ్నలు ఉన్నాయి.కొన్ని ప్రశ్నలలో గమనిక (Note): కొన్ని ప్రశ్నలకు, ప్రశ్న/జవాబులలో తేడా ఉన్నందున, ఆ ప్రశ్నలు అభ్యర్థులందరికీ విస్మరించబడ్డాయి
RRB GROUP-D 2018 పరీక్షకు సంబంధించిన మునుపటి ప్రశ్నపత్రం (తెలుగులో). పరీక్ష వివరాలు:పరీక్ష తేదీ: 15/10/2018పరీక్ష సమయం: 4:00 PM - 5:30 PMసబ్జెక్ట్ లెవెల్: Level 1నోటిఫికేషన్: Level-1 Posts CEN-02/2018ముఖ్యమైన సమాచారం:మొత్తం 15 మాక్ టెస్ట్లు అందుబాటులో ఉన్నాయి.1200+ మునుపటి RRB గణిత ప్రశ్నల వివరణ కలదు.2000 మునుపటి GROUP-D, NTPC GS/GK ప్రశ్నల PDF (చేతితో వ్రాసినవి) తెలుగులో కలవు.వీటి చెల్లుబాటు 6 నెలలు మరియు రుసుము ₹ 160/-.ప్రశ్నల నమూనా:ఈ పత్రంలో వివిధ రకాల ప్రశ్నలు ఉన్నాయి, వీటిలో:తార్కికత (రీజనింగ్) (ఉదా: తర్వాతి చిత్రం, వెన్ చిత్రం, ఆకృతులలో భిన్నమైనది)గణితం (ఉదా: త్రిభుజ కోణాలు, వయస్సు నిష్పత్తి, నిరోధకత, శాతం, లాభం, చక్రాలు)సాధారణ విజ్ఞానం (ఉదా: చరిత్రకారుడు, రసాయన చర్య, శబ్ద వేగం, ఎపిడెర్మిస్, మూలకాల వర్గీకరణ, SI యూనిట్)సామాజిక శాస్త్రాలు (ఉదా: రాజకీయ పార్టీలు, రాజధాని, 'ప్రాజెక్ట్ టైగర్' ప్రారంభం)
A previous year's question paper for the Indian Railway Recruitment Boards (RRB) Level-1 Posts (CEN-02/2018).Test Details:Test Date: 28/09/2018Test Time: 4:00 PM - 5:30 PMSubject: Level 1Instructions for Candidates:Options shown in green color with a tick icon are correct.The chosen option is indicated on the top right of the question.The numbers against the Question ID and Option ID are for raising objections.Sample Questions and Answers (Telugu):Science:What is the common factor for elements in the same group in the modern periodic table? Valency electrons.The metal extracted only by electrolysis is Aluminum (Al).The wall of a fungal cell is made of a complex sugar called Chitin.The most common element in all acids is Hydrogen.Rods and cones are present in the Eyes (కళ్లు).The melting point of water is $0^{\circ}C$.Resistance of a conductor is directly proportional to its Length (పొడవు).General Knowledge:The winner of the 2016 World Chess Championship title was Magnus Carlsen.The Ministry that launched the 'Green Good Deeds' campaign in 2018 was the Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change.The full form of BCCI is Board of Control for Cricket in India.'Ilaiyaraaja' is a prominent figure in the field of Music (సంగీతం).The first amendment to the Indian Constitution was made in 1951.India's neighboring country to the East is Bangladesh.The Gir dry deciduous forests are located in Gujarat.Sir Williams Jones founded the Asiatic Society of Bengal in 1784.
A Telugu practice paper for the RRB Group-D Level-1 Posts CEN-02/2018 examination.Exam Details:Test Date: 18/09/2018Test Time: 4:00 PM - 5:30 PMSubject: Level 1Question Structure:Options shown in green with a tick icon are correct.The chosen option is indicated on the top right of the question.Numbers for Question ID and Option ID are for raising objections.Some questions have a note indicating they are "ignored for all candidates" due to a discrepancy found in the question/answer.Sample Questions and Correct Answers (for answered questions):SubjectQuestion (Q.)Correct AnswerPhysicsఒక కుటుంబము ఒక నెలలో 150 యూనిట్ల శక్తిని వినియోగించింది. జాజౌల్స్ లో ఈ శక్తి ఎంత? (Q.1)5.4\times10^8 Jత్వరణం (వేగవృద్ధి) యొక్క కొలతలు ఏమిటి? (Q.10)L^1M^0T^-2 స్థితిజ శక్తి దీనికి సమానము: (Q.10)mghChemistryక్రింది మూలకాలలో దేనికి అధిక అయనీకరణ శక్తి ఉన్నది? (Q.8)He ఆధునిక పీరియాడిక్ పట్టికలో ఇకా-అల్యూమినియంకు తరువాత ఒక లోహంగా పేరు పెట్టబడింది. (Q.7)జెర్మానియం Biologyఎడారి మొక్కలు బాహ్యచర్మం యొక్క మందపాటి మైనపు పూత ఉంది. (Q.23)కుటిన్ ఒక ప్రోటీన్ యొక్క పూర్తి సమాచారాన్ని అందించే DNA యొక్క ఒక భాగాన్ని గా సూచిస్తుంది (Q.5)జన్యువు GK/Current Affairs2018లో, జాతీయ వ్యవసాయ మరియు గ్రామీణాభివృద్ధి బ్యాంకు (నాబార్డ్) తనదైన మొదటి రకం వాతావరణ మార్పుకు కేంద్రము ప్రారంభించింది. అది ఏ నగరములో ప్రారంభించబడింది? (Q.5)కోల్ కతా FIFA U-17 ప్రపంచ కప్ను గెలవడానికి 28 అక్టోబర్, 2017న కోల్కత్తాలోని సాల్ట్ లేక్ స్టేడియంలో స్పెయిన్ని ఎవరు ఓడించారు? (Q.4)ఇంగ్లాండ్ 'బాహుబలి' సినీ సిరీస్లో భల్లాళదేవ పాత్రను ధరించిన నటుడి పేరును తెలపండి. (Q.3)రాణా దగ్గుబాటి
RRB GROUP-D పరీక్షకు సంబంధించిన మునుపటి ప్రశ్నపత్రం (తెలుగులో).పరీక్ష వివరాలు:పోస్ట్: Level-1 Posts CEN-02/2018తేదీ మరియు సమయం: 15/10/2018, 9:00 AM-10:30 AMమెటీరియల్ ఆఫర్:15 మాక్ టెస్టులు1200+ మునుపటి RRB గణిత ప్రశ్నలకు వివరణ2000 మునుపటి GROUP-D, NTPC GS/GK ప్రశ్నల PDF (చేతితో వ్రాసినవి) టెస్టులు మాత్రమే తెలుగులో కలవువ్యాలిడిటీ (Validity): 6 నెలలుఫీజు (FEE): ₹ 160/-గమనికలు:పచ్చ రంగులో టిక్ గుర్తుతో చూపబడిన ఎంపికలు సరైనవి.ప్రశ్నకు కుడి వైపున పైన ఉన్న ఎంపిక అభ్యర్థి ఎంచుకున్న ఎంపికను సూచిస్తుంది.కొన్ని ప్రశ్నలకు, ప్రశ్న/జవాబులో తేడా (discrepancy) కనుగొనబడింది, కాబట్టి అవి అభ్యర్థులందరికీ విస్మరించబడ్డాయి.కొన్ని ప్రశ్నలు మరియు సమాధానాలు (ఉదాహరణలు):ఉత్తరాఖండ్ రాజధాని: డెహ్రాడూన్.మమతా బెనర్జీ నాయకత్వం వహిస్తున్న పార్టీ: అఖిల భారత తృణమూల్ కాంగ్రెస్.ఊబర్ బ్రాండ్ అంబాసిడర్: విరాట్ కోహ్లి.మానవులలో పురుషులందు వృషణాల సంఖ్య: రెండు.2023 క్రికెట్ ప్రపంచ కప్ నిర్వహించిన దేశం: భారతదేశం.పెరియార్ టైగర్ రిజర్వ్ ఉన్న రాష్ట్రం: కేరళ.
a collection of previous papers for the RAILWAY RECRUITMENT BOARDS (रेलवे भर्ती बोर्ड) Level-1 Posts CEN-02/2018 examination, provided by SATHISH EDUTECH. It includes multiple-choice questions (MCQs) in Telugu and English, covering various subjects.Key Information and Contact Details:Title: RAILWAY PREVIOUS PAPERSProvider: SATHISH EDUTECHEncouragement: Users are asked to share the PDF with friends.Updates: To receive free PDFs and tests related to Railway exams, as well as weekly current affairs and job news (10th/Inter/Degree), users are advised to subscribe.Question Types (Sampled Content):Science (Chemistry/Physics/Biology): Precipitation reactions, Chemical formula of Ferrous Sulphate crystals (FeSO_{4}7H_{2}O), SI unit of 1 Nm^{-2} (Pressure), Relationship between acceleration, velocity, and time for a car, Force calculation, Resistance of a conductor depends on.General Knowledge/Current Affairs: Governor of Madhya Pradesh as of January 23, 2018 (Anandi Ben Patel), Young CEO of I.D Special Foods Private Limited invited to Harvard University, Winner of 53rd Jnanpith Award 2017 (Krishna Sobti), The state to which 'Nuakhai' social festival belongs (Odisha), Host country for 2018 Asia Cup Cricket (UAE).Mathematics/Reasoning: Series completion, Average calculations, Time and distance problems, Fractions and ratios, Word-based reasoning (Wait: Linger:: Bite: ?), Mirror images and series completion.Instructions for Candidates: Options shown in green color with a tick icon are correct; the chosen option is indicated on the top right of the question; Question ID and Option ID numbers are for raising objections.
RRB గ్రూప్ D (Level-1 Posts CEN-02/2018) ప్రశ్నాపత్రంలోని కొన్ని ప్రశ్నలు, వాటి సమాధానాలు మరియు అభ్యర్థి ఎంచుకున్న ఎంపికలను కలిగి ఉంది.పరీక్ష వివరాలు:పరీక్ష కేంద్రం పేరు:పరీక్ష తేదీ:పరీక్ష సమయం:విషయం:సరైన ఎంపికను ఆకుపచ్చ రంగులో టిక్ గుర్తుతో చూపించారు.అభ్యర్థి ఎంచుకున్న ఎంపికను ప్రశ్న యొక్క కుడి ఎగువ భాగంలో సూచించారు.ప్రశ్నలు మరియు సమాధానాలు (తెలుగులో):Q.1: రెండు ఉపరితలాల మధ్య క్రమరాహిత్యాల ఫలితంగా ఏర్పడుతుంది: ఘర్షణ (ఎంచుకున్నది: 3)Q.2: ఆగస్టు 2017న 45వ భారతదేశ ప్రధాన న్యాయమూర్తిగా ప్రమాణస్వీకారం చేసినది: దీపక్ మిశ్రా (ఎంచుకున్నది: 2)Q.7: ఒక ప్రోటీన్ యొక్క పూర్తి సమాచారాన్ని అందించే DNA యొక్క ఒక భాగాన్ని గా సూచిస్తుంది: జన్యువు (ఎంచుకున్నది: 4)Q.8: $\sqrt{324} = \times 8$ అయితే, $\times$ యొక్క విలువ: $2$ (అభ్యర్థి ఎంచుకున్నది: 4)Q.14: జీరో బడ్జెట్ నేచురల్ ఫార్మింగ్ (ZBNF) ప్రాజెక్టును ప్రారంభించిన భారతీయ రాష్ట్ర ప్రభుత్వం: ఆంధ్రప్రదేశ్ (ఎంచుకున్నది: 4)Q.17: భారతీయ సూపర్ కంప్యూటర్ పేరు, శీతోష్ణ స్థితి మరియు వాతావరణ పరిశోధనకు అంకితం చేయబడిన ప్రపంచంలో నాలుగవ స్థానంలో ఉన్నది: ప్రత్యుష్ (ఎంచుకున్నది: 4)Q.21: 'చేరియల్' పెయింటింగ్ భారతదేశంలోని ఈ రాష్ట్రానికి చెందినది: తెలంగాణQ.25: అత్యధిక అయనీకరణ శక్తి ఉన్న మూలకం: HeQ.26: బ్లెడో ఎడారి ఈ దేశములో ఉంది: పోలండ్Q.33: దంతవైద్యులు ఒక పుటాకార అద్దంను ఉపయోగిస్తారు, ఎందుకంటే: స్పష్టమైన మరియు విస్తారితమైన ప్రతిబింబం ఏర్పడటానికి (ఎంచుకున్నది: 3)Q.41: ఆధునిక పీరియాడిక్ పట్టికలో ఇకా-అల్యూమినియంకు తరువాత లోహంగా పేరు పెట్టబడింది: గాలియం (ఎంచుకున్నది: 1)Q.45: FIFA U-17 ప్రపంచ కప్ను గెలవడానికి 28 అక్టోబర్, 2017న కోల్కత్తాలోని సాల్ట్ లేక్ స్టేడియంలో స్పెయిన్ని ఓడించినది: ఇంగ్లాండ్Q.55: స్థితిజ శక్తి దీనికి సమానము: $mgh$Q.59: ఒంటరిగా యుద్ధ విమానంలో ప్రయాణించిన తొలి భారతీయ మహిళ: అవని చతుర్వేదిQ.61: NITI ఆయోగ్ యొక్క ఎక్స్-అఫీషియో చైర్మన్: భారత ప్రధానమంత్రిQ.77: అత్యధిక ఋణ విద్యుదాత్మకత ఉండే పదార్థం: CIQ.89: భారతదేశం యొక్క మొదటి "విలేజ్ ఆఫ్ బుక్స్"ను ప్రారంభించిన రాష్ట్రం: మహారాష్ట్రQ.97: 'బాహుబలి' సినీ సిరీస్లో భల్లాళదేవ పాత్రను ధరించిన నటుడు: రాణా దగ్గుబాటి
The RRC: Group D Exam 2013 Question Paper With Key, held on 17.11.2013, in Telugu. It contains a series of multiple-choice questions across General Knowledge, Science, Mathematics, and Reasoning, followed by an answer key.Key topics and questions from the paper include:History & Civics:The first person to receive the Bharat Ratna award posthumously.The main sources for learning about the Indus Valley Civilization.The ruler who conducted religious meetings in Prayag every five years.The dynasty that ruled Delhi before the Mughals.The "Astadiggajas" in the court of Krishnadevaraya.The legislative branch of the government.The dynasty that ruled Delhi when Timur invaded India.The year in which Ashoka reigned.The capital of the Pallavas.Science & Environment:The property of Compressed Natural Gas (CNG) that allows it to be available in large volumes in small cylinders.Why non-green fungi-like plants cannot prepare their own food.The part of the body where iodine accumulates.The lifespan of an RBC in the human body.The greatest discovery of man in the Paleolithic age.Why silver, gold, and platinum are called noble metals.The type of sugar present in a significant amount in the blood.The ratio of the length and width of the national flag.The vitamin that sunlight provides to the body.Geography:Where the Shevaroy Hills are located.The river that originates near Mahabaleshwar.The location of the Korba coal fields.The country to which 100m sprinter Usain Bolt belongs.The city that won the "Best Heritage City, 2011-12" award.Miscellaneous:The former name of the World Trade Organization (WTO).The 'SENSEX' meaning.The city that will host the 2016 Summer Olympics.The author of "Pahnaama".The author of the book "Unaccustomed Earth".
The South Central Railway Recruitment Cell Group - D Exam (Telugu) held on 16-11-2014.Exam Details:Title: South Central Railway Recruitment Cell Group - D Exam (Telugu) Held on 16-11-2014.Duration: 1½ Hours / 90 Minutes.Total Marks: 100.Exam Code: 1462.Question Booklet No.: 6025767.Date of Examination: 16-11-2014.Instructions: Candidates must first open the Red seal and read the complete set of instructions carefully.Question Paper Sections:The question paper is divided into the following sections:Section-I: English (100 questions, Pages 8 to 19).Section-II: Hindi/हिन्दी (100 questions, Pages 20 to 32).Section-III: Urdu اردو (100 questions, Pages 33 to 46).Section-IV: Telugu/తెలుగు (100 questions, Pages 47 to 60).Section-V: Kannada (100 questions, Pages 61 to 73).Section-VI: Marathi/मराठी (100 questions, Pages 74 to 86).Mandatory Task:Candidates must write the following paragraph at the specified place in the OMR Answer-Sheet in their own handwriting:Paragraph: "There is a well known proverb "NO pain, NO gain" hard work never goes waste. Although it may be later or sooner success comes to your feet. We can have a look towards the life of great people like Mahatma Gandhi, Albert Einstein, Newton etc. They had made the right use of every second and finally everyone got success in their life.".
FBO mains paper is a multiple-choice question paper covering a range of topics in Science and Mathematics.Science Highlights:The function of the glass sheet on a solar cooker is similar to the Greenhouse effect.Biogas production occurs in the absence of Oxygen.Petroleum and natural gas are fossil fuels, but coal cannot be prepared in the laboratory from dead organisms.A substance with an ignition temperature of 95 °C (P) or 98 °C (Q) will catch fire at 100 °C.The wastes discharged from a biogas plant are reused as fertilizers for crops.In electro refining of copper, pure copper from the electrolytic solution deposits at the cathode.The thermite process, used to weld railway tracks, involves a reaction between iron oxide and aluminium.In the Haber's process, X=1 mole of nitrogen reacts with Y=3 moles of hydrogen to form Z=2 moles of ammonia.The catalyst used in the hydrogenation of vegetable oils is Nickel.Vinegar bottles freeze in cold regions because pure ethanoic acid has a high melting point.A spacecraft cannot burn on the moon because the moon has no atmosphere containing oxygen.A lunar eclipse demonstration using a flashlight (Sun), a basketball (Earth), and a tennis ball (Moon) would arrange them as: Flashlight >>> Basketball >>>> Tennisball.Comet is a member of the solar system.The Ptolemaic theory considered the Earth to be the center of the universe.India's first satellite launched exclusively for meteorology is KALPANA-1.If the Earth's axial tilt increased from 23.5 degrees to 30 degrees, the most significant climate effect would be intensified seasonal variations.If the sun were suddenly replaced by a black hole of equal mass, Earth's orbit would remain nearly the same initially.The color of stars indicates its Temperature.Atlantis is not correctly matched as a Space station (it is a Space shuttle).Remote sensing technology helps satellites provide Real-Time images for disaster management.Nutrients that help in building the body are Proteins.Oxygen is not required for photosynthesis.The gland that releases HCl in the human digestive tract is the Gastric glands.Organisms that undergo cutaneous respiration are the Frog and earthworm.Plants with aerial roots are Mangrove plants.The central metal in Hemoglobin is Iron, and in Chlorophyll is Magnesium.The largest artery in the human body is the Aorta.The tissue that helps in the transport of water in plants is Xylem.The part of the brain that controls involuntary actions such as blood pressure and vomiting is the Medulla oblongata.The gland that secretes insulin is the Pancreas.The basic unit of heredity is the Genes.The disposal of solid waste is a significant cause of land pollution.Sulphur dioxide is responsible for acid rain.Mathematics Highlights:A problem asks for the HCF and LCM of two numbers, with one number between 200 and 300, and the difference of the two numbers is required.A problem involves finding a fraction based on conditions related to adding a number to the numerator and denominator.An age problem asks for the ratio of the present ages of a father and son.A profit percent problem involves a shopkeeper marking a price 30% above the cost price and allowing a discount of Rs. 31.20 on a bill of Rs. 312.The greatest 3-digit number leaving a remainder of 1 when divided by 2, 3, 4, 5, and 6 is asked.A time and work problem involves P being thrice as good as Q and finishing the work 60 days less than Q, asking for the time they take together.A problem asks for the average speed given distances covered by bus at 16 km/hr and returning by cycle at 9 km/hr.A Venn diagram question asks for the number of students who like to read books or play sports.A question involves finding the correct roots of a quadratic equation ax^{2}+bx+c=0 given wrong roots from using wrong b and wrong c values.A geometry problem involves finding the area of triangle PQR given the area of triangle QTS and ratios of segments on the sides.A trigonometry problem asks for the angle the sun makes with the ground when a 6 m flag staff on a tower throws a shadow of 2sqrt{3} m.A data interpretation problem involves finding the average marks obtained by a class in an examination, given question-wise data on correct, wrong, and unattempted answers.A statistics problem asks for the median salary of 100 employees with different income groups.A bar chart problem asks for the percentage of candidates who applied for Company B compared to Company A over six years.A combined bar chart and pie chart problem asks for the total number of males in companies A and C, given the total number of employees and percentage breakdowns.
FBO Exam Paper 1 is a multiple-choice question paper (GS/M/TOBAF/500) covering a wide range of topics, including environmental science, disaster management, current affairs, Indian history, geography, biology, economics, constitution, and reasoning.Key Information from the Document:Environmental Science & Sustainable Development:The largest contributor to environmental pollution is Industry.The concept of 'carbon footprint' refers to the total amount of greenhouse gases emitted by human activities.Carbon monoxide (CO) is the gas primarily responsible for air pollution.Carbon dioxide ($CO_{2}$) is the gas that traps heat and contributes most to the greenhouse effect.Global warming is primarily caused by an increase in greenhouse gases.The 1992 United Nations Conference on Environment and Development (UNCED) is known as the Earth Summit.The Brundtland Commission (1987) first clearly explained the idea of Sustainable Development.The United Nations adopted 17 Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) in 2015.Planting trees and reducing plastic use support Environmental sustainability.The 'green economy' focuses on fostering green industries and creating green jobs.The Montreal Protocol focuses on protecting the ozone layer.The ozone layer acts as earth's shield, absorbing harmful ultraviolet radiation from the sun.Sustainable practice in agriculture includes crop rotation and organic farming.Disaster Management:Disaster Management means reducing the impact of disasters.Disaster response in India is managed by NDMA (National Disaster Management Authority).Hurricanes are measured using the Saffir-Simpson scale.Conducting mock drills is important for disaster preparedness at schools.Tsunamis affecting India mostly originate from the Indian Ocean.Cyclones form over Oceans, and Andhra Pradesh is the state most prone to cyclones.Earthquakes are measured by a Seismograph.The Bhopal Gas Tragedy was caused by a Gas leakage.Indian Polity & History:The 42nd Amendment added the words 'Socialist' and 'Secular' to the Preamble.The President appoints the Chief Justice of India.The collective responsibility of the Council of Ministers indicates a Parliamentary System of Government.The President can proclaim a National Emergency under Article 352.The Right to Equality is guaranteed by Article 14.The 8th Schedule contains the list of official languages.The 24th Jain Thirthankara was Vardhamana Mahavira.Alexander marched to India in 326 BC through the Khyber pass.The official language of the Satavahanas was Prakrit.Rajatarangini was composed by Kalhana.The Kailasa Temple at Ellora was carved during the reign of Krishna I.Megasthenes was the foreign ambassador who visited the Mauryan court.A common feature of Rajput War strategy was direct combat with emphasis on personal valor.Avesta was written in the Iranian language.Harihara and Bukka belonged to the Sangama Dynasty.Geography & Economy:The longest National Highway passing through Andhra Pradesh is NH 16 (Chennai-Kolkata).The Deccan Plateau is mostly composed of Basalt rock.Black soil is best suited for cotton cultivation in India.Anamudi is the highest peak in South India.The Eastern Ghats in Andhra Pradesh are mostly discontinuous and eroded hills.Chilika Lake, Asia's largest brackish water lagoon, is located in Odisha.Gujarat has the longest Coastline in India.Andhra Bank was merged into Union Bank of India.The Indian rupee sign came into effect in July 2010.Primary Deficit is calculated as Fiscal Deficit - Interest Payments.The Indian Financial System Code (IFSC) has a total of 11 letters and digits.Science & Other:Vitamin 'A' deficiency causes vision loss and blindness.The main function of nucleic acids is the storage and expression of genetic information.The main function of kidneys is to filter waste products and excess water from the blood.Photosynthesis is the process for plants to make their own food.Mitochondria is called the power house of the cell.A gene is a hereditary unit.Vermicompost is manure made by earthworms converting organic waste.White revolution means to increase the production of milk in India.Wind is a renewable source of energy.
A question paper for the Multi-Tasking Non-Technical Staff and Havildar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024. The exam date was 23/10/2024, Shift 3.The paper is divided into three main sections:Numerical and Mathematical Ability: This section includes 20 questions (Q.1 to Q.20) covering topics such as average expenditure and income, speed and distance, age ratio, train problems, geometry (equilateral triangle and regular hexagon), income averages, corrected averages, profit and loss, simple interest, mixture and allegation, HCF and LCM, volume and melting, data interpretation via bar graph, discount, ratio of boys and girls, and data interpretation via a table of employees.Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving: This section contains 20 questions (Q.1 to Q.20) on topics like interchanging mathematical signs, coding-decoding, circular seating arrangement, mirror image, number sets analogy, figure series, syllogism (statements and conclusions), number series, figure completion, and English alphabetical series.General Awareness: This section includes 25 questions (Q.1 to Q.25) on diverse topics such as the Pharmacy (Amendment) Bill, 2023, Losar celebration, classical dance (Mohiniyattam performer Kanak Rele), historical acts (Government of India Act of 1919), climate zones, founders of dynasties (Mauryan), political figures (Shafiqur Rahman Barq), books by Dadabhai Naoroji, literature (The Glory of Patan), historical dates (Punjab abolishing Legislative Council), chemical compounds (curcumin in turmeric, sodium bicarbonate), music gharanas (Indore gharana founder), architecture (Pietra Dura), agriculture (Rabi season), economics (capital goods), awards (Padma Puraskars order), history (Vijayanagara kingdom dynasty), science (lycopene in tomatoes), census data (minimum literacy rate in UT), Indian Constitution (Fundamental Duties), sports (Sanjana Bathula, Women's Premier League captain), geography (Mawsynram), and international borders (India's neighbors).English Language and Comprehension: This section contains 25 questions (Q.1 to Q.25) covering spelling errors, synonyms (Ecstatic, pursue, gruelling, Energy, discern), phrasal verb errors, idiom meaning (read between the lines, a piece of cake), grammatical errors, fill in the blanks (vocabulary and parts of speech), and a five-question cloze test comprehension passage.
A question paper for the Multi-Tasking Non-Technical Staff and Havildar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024. The exam date was 23/10/2024, Shift 2. The exam time was from 12:30 PM to 2:30 PM.The paper is divided into three main sections:Numerical and Mathematical Ability: This section includes 20 questions (Q.1 to Q.20) covering topics such as average expenditure and income, speed and distance, age ratio, train problems, geometry (equilateral triangle and regular hexagon), income averages, corrected averages, profit and loss, simple interest, mixture and allegation, HCF and LCM, volume and melting, data interpretation via bar graph, discount, ratio of boys and girls, and data interpretation via a table of employees.Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving: This section contains 20 questions (Q.1 to Q.20) on topics like interchanging mathematical signs, coding-decoding, circular seating arrangement, mirror image, number sets analogy, figure series, syllogism (statements and conclusions), number series, figure completion, and English alphabetical series.General Awareness: This section includes 25 questions (Q.1 to Q.25) on diverse topics such as the Pharmacy (Amendment) Bill, 2023, Losar celebration, classical dance (Mohiniyattam performer Kanak Rele), historical acts (Government of India Act of 1919), climate zones, founders of dynasties (Mauryan), political figures (Shafiqur Rahman Barq), books by Dadabhai Naoroji, literature (The Glory of Patan), historical dates (Punjab abolishing Legislative Council), chemical compounds (curcumin in turmeric, sodium bicarbonate), music gharanas (Indore gharana founder), architecture (Pietra Dura), agriculture (Rabi season), economics (capital goods), awards (Padma Puraskars order), history (Vijayanagara kingdom dynasty), science (lycopene in tomatoes), census data (minimum literacy rate in UT), Indian Constitution (Fundamental Duties), sports (Sanjana Bathula, Women's Premier League captain), geography (Mawsynram), and international borders (India's neighbors).English Language and Comprehension: This section contains 25 questions (Q.1 to Q.25) covering spelling errors, synonyms (Ecstatic, pursue, gruelling, Energy, discern), phrasal verb errors, idiom meaning (read between the lines, a piece of cake), grammatical errors, fill in the blanks (vocabulary and parts of speech), and a five-question cloze test comprehension passage.
A question paper for the Multi-Tasking Non-Technical Staff and Havildar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024. The exam date was 23/10/2024, Shift 1. The exam time was from 9:00 AM to 11:00 AM.The paper is divided into three main sections:Numerical and Mathematical Ability: This section includes 20 questions (Q.1 to Q.20) covering topics such as average expenditure and income, speed and distance, age ratio, train problems, geometry (equilateral triangle and regular hexagon), income averages, corrected averages, profit and loss, simple interest, mixture and allegation, HCF and LCM, volume and melting, data interpretation via bar graph, discount, ratio of boys and girls, and data interpretation via a table of employees.Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving: This section contains 20 questions (Q.1 to Q.20) on topics like interchanging mathematical signs, coding-decoding, circular seating arrangement, mirror image, number sets analogy, figure series, syllogism (statements and conclusions), number series, figure completion, and English alphabetical series.General Awareness: This section includes 25 questions (Q.1 to Q.25) on diverse topics such as the Pharmacy (Amendment) Bill, 2023, Losar celebration, classical dance (Mohiniyattam performer Kanak Rele), historical acts (Government of India Act of 1919), climate zones, founders of dynasties (Mauryan), political figures (Shafiqur Rahman Barq), books by Dadabhai Naoroji, literature (The Glory of Patan), historical dates (Punjab abolishing Legislative Council), chemical compounds (curcumin in turmeric, sodium bicarbonate), music gharanas (Indore gharana founder), architecture (Pietra Dura), agriculture (Rabi season), economics (capital goods), awards (Padma Puraskars order), history (Vijayanagara kingdom dynasty), science (lycopene in tomatoes), census data (minimum literacy rate in UT), Indian Constitution (Fundamental Duties), sports (Sanjana Bathula, Women's Premier League captain), geography (Mawsynram), and international borders (India's neighbors).English Language and Comprehension: This section contains 25 questions (Q.1 to Q.25) covering spelling errors, synonyms (Ecstatic, pursue, gruelling, Energy, discern), phrasal verb errors, idiom meaning (read between the lines, a piece of cake), grammatical errors, fill in the blanks (vocabulary and parts of speech), and a five-question cloze test comprehension passage.
A question paper for the Multi-Tasking Non-Technical Staff and Havildar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024. The exam date was 22/10/2024, Shift 3. The paper is divided into three main sections:Numerical and Mathematical Ability: This section includes 20 questions (Q.1 to Q.20) covering topics such as average expenditure and income, speed and distance, age ratio, train problems, geometry (equilateral triangle and regular hexagon), income averages, corrected averages, profit and loss, simple interest, mixture and allegation, HCF and LCM, volume and melting, data interpretation via bar graph, discount, ratio of boys and girls, and data interpretation via a table of employees.Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving: This section contains 20 questions (Q.1 to Q.20) on topics like interchanging mathematical signs, coding-decoding, circular seating arrangement, mirror image, number sets analogy, figure series, syllogism (statements and conclusions), number series, figure completion, and English alphabetical series.General Awareness: This section includes 25 questions (Q.1 to Q.25) on diverse topics such as the Pharmacy (Amendment) Bill, 2023, Losar celebration, classical dance (Mohiniyattam performer Kanak Rele), historical acts (Government of India Act of 1919), climate zones, founders of dynasties (Mauryan), political figures (Shafiqur Rahman Barq), books by Dadabhai Naoroji, literature (The Glory of Patan), historical dates (Punjab abolishing Legislative Council), chemical compounds (curcumin in turmeric, sodium bicarbonate), music gharanas (Indore gharana founder), architecture (Pietra Dura), agriculture (Rabi season), economics (capital goods), awards (Padma Puraskars order), history (Vijayanagara kingdom dynasty), science (lycopene in tomatoes), census data (minimum literacy rate in UT), Indian Constitution (Fundamental Duties), sports (Sanjana Bathula, Women's Premier League captain), geography (Mawsynram), and international borders (India's neighbors).English Language and Comprehension: This section contains 25 questions (Q.1 to Q.25) covering spelling errors, synonyms (Ecstatic, pursue, gruelling, Energy, discern), phrasal verb errors, idiom meaning (read between the lines, a piece of cake), grammatical errors, fill in the blanks (vocabulary and parts of speech), and a five-question cloze test comprehension passage.
A question paper for the Multi-Tasking Non-Technical Staff and Havildar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024. The exam date was 22/10/2024, Shift 2. The exam time was from 12:30 AM to 02:30 PM.The paper is divided into three main sections:Numerical and Mathematical Ability: This section includes 20 questions (Q.1 to Q.20) covering topics such as average expenditure and income, speed and distance, age ratio, train problems, geometry (equilateral triangle and regular hexagon), income averages, corrected averages, profit and loss, simple interest, mixture and allegation, HCF and LCM, volume and melting, data interpretation via bar graph, discount, ratio of boys and girls, and data interpretation via a table of employees.Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving: This section contains 20 questions (Q.1 to Q.20) on topics like interchanging mathematical signs, coding-decoding, circular seating arrangement, mirror image, number sets analogy, figure series, syllogism (statements and conclusions), number series, figure completion, and English alphabetical series.General Awareness: This section includes 25 questions (Q.1 to Q.25) on diverse topics such as the Pharmacy (Amendment) Bill, 2023, Losar celebration, classical dance (Mohiniyattam performer Kanak Rele), historical acts (Government of India Act of 1919), climate zones, founders of dynasties (Mauryan), political figures (Shafiqur Rahman Barq), books by Dadabhai Naoroji, literature (The Glory of Patan), historical dates (Punjab abolishing Legislative Council), chemical compounds (curcumin in turmeric, sodium bicarbonate), music gharanas (Indore gharana founder), architecture (Pietra Dura), agriculture (Rabi season), economics (capital goods), awards (Padma Puraskars order), history (Vijayanagara kingdom dynasty), science (lycopene in tomatoes), census data (minimum literacy rate in UT), Indian Constitution (Fundamental Duties), sports (Sanjana Bathula, Women's Premier League captain), geography (Mawsynram), and international borders (India's neighbors).English Language and Comprehension: This section contains 25 questions (Q.1 to Q.25) covering spelling errors, synonyms (Ecstatic, pursue, gruelling, Energy, discern), phrasal verb errors, idiom meaning (read between the lines, a piece of cake), grammatical errors, fill in the blanks (vocabulary and parts of speech), and a five-question cloze test comprehension passage.
A question paper for the Multi-Tasking Non-Technical Staff and Havildar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024. The exam date was 22/10/2024, Shift 1. The exam time was from 9:00 AM to 11:00 AM.The paper is divided into three main sections:Numerical and Mathematical Ability: This section includes 20 questions (Q.1 to Q.20) covering topics such as average expenditure and income, speed and distance, age ratio, train problems, geometry (equilateral triangle and regular hexagon), income averages, corrected averages, profit and loss, simple interest, mixture and allegation, HCF and LCM, volume and melting, data interpretation via bar graph, discount, ratio of boys and girls, and data interpretation via a table of employees.Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving: This section contains 20 questions (Q.1 to Q.20) on topics like interchanging mathematical signs, coding-decoding, circular seating arrangement, mirror image, number sets analogy, figure series, syllogism (statements and conclusions), number series, figure completion, and English alphabetical series.General Awareness: This section includes 25 questions (Q.1 to Q.25) on diverse topics such as the Pharmacy (Amendment) Bill, 2023, Losar celebration, classical dance (Mohiniyattam performer Kanak Rele), historical acts (Government of India Act of 1919), climate zones, founders of dynasties (Mauryan), political figures (Shafiqur Rahman Barq), books by Dadabhai Naoroji, literature (The Glory of Patan), historical dates (Punjab abolishing Legislative Council), chemical compounds (curcumin in turmeric, sodium bicarbonate), music gharanas (Indore gharana founder), architecture (Pietra Dura), agriculture (Rabi season), economics (capital goods), awards (Padma Puraskars order), history (Vijayanagara kingdom dynasty), science (lycopene in tomatoes), census data (minimum literacy rate in UT), Indian Constitution (Fundamental Duties), sports (Sanjana Bathula, Women's Premier League captain), geography (Mawsynram), and international borders (India's neighbors).English Language and Comprehension: This section contains 25 questions (Q.1 to Q.25) covering spelling errors, synonyms (Ecstatic, pursue, gruelling, Energy, discern), phrasal verb errors, idiom meaning (read between the lines, a piece of cake), grammatical errors, fill in the blanks (vocabulary and parts of speech), and a five-question cloze test comprehension passage.
A question paper for the Multi-Tasking Non-Technical Staff and Havildar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024. The exam date was 21/10/2024, Shift 3.The paper is divided into three main sections:Numerical and Mathematical Ability: This section includes 20 questions (Q.1 to Q.20) covering topics such as average expenditure and income, speed and distance, age ratio, train problems, geometry (equilateral triangle and regular hexagon), income averages, corrected averages, profit and loss, simple interest, mixture and allegation, HCF and LCM, volume and melting, data interpretation via bar graph, discount, ratio of boys and girls, and data interpretation via a table of employees.Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving: This section contains 20 questions (Q.1 to Q.20) on topics like interchanging mathematical signs, coding-decoding, circular seating arrangement, mirror image, number sets analogy, figure series, syllogism (statements and conclusions), number series, figure completion, and English alphabetical series.General Awareness: This section includes 25 questions (Q.1 to Q.25) on diverse topics such as the Pharmacy (Amendment) Bill, 2023, Losar celebration, classical dance (Mohiniyattam performer Kanak Rele), historical acts (Government of India Act of 1919), climate zones, founders of dynasties (Mauryan), political figures (Shafiqur Rahman Barq), books by Dadabhai Naoroji, literature (The Glory of Patan), historical dates (Punjab abolishing Legislative Council), chemical compounds (curcumin in turmeric, sodium bicarbonate), music gharanas (Indore gharana founder), architecture (Pietra Dura), agriculture (Rabi season), economics (capital goods), awards (Padma Puraskars order), history (Vijayanagara kingdom dynasty), science (lycopene in tomatoes), census data (minimum literacy rate in UT), Indian Constitution (Fundamental Duties), sports (Sanjana Bathula, Women's Premier League captain), geography (Mawsynram), and international borders (India's neighbors).English Language and Comprehension: This section contains 25 questions (Q.1 to Q.25) covering spelling errors, synonyms (Ecstatic, pursue, gruelling, Energy, discern), phrasal verb errors, idiom meaning (read between the lines, a piece of cake), grammatical errors, fill in the blanks (vocabulary and parts of speech), and a five-question cloze test comprehension passage.
A question paper for the Multi-Tasking Non-Technical Staff and Havildar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024. The exam date was 21/10/2024, Shift 2. The exam time was from 12:30 PM to 02:30 PM.The paper is divided into three main sections:Numerical and Mathematical Ability: This section includes 20 questions (Q.1 to Q.20) covering topics such as average expenditure and income, speed and distance, age ratio, train problems, geometry (equilateral triangle and regular hexagon), income averages, corrected averages, profit and loss, simple interest, mixture and allegation, HCF and LCM, volume and melting, data interpretation via bar graph, discount, ratio of boys and girls, and data interpretation via a table of employees.Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving: This section contains 20 questions (Q.1 to Q.20) on topics like interchanging mathematical signs, coding-decoding, circular seating arrangement, mirror image, number sets analogy, figure series, syllogism (statements and conclusions), number series, figure completion, and English alphabetical series.General Awareness: This section includes 25 questions (Q.1 to Q.25) on diverse topics such as the Pharmacy (Amendment) Bill, 2023, Losar celebration, classical dance (Mohiniyattam performer Kanak Rele), historical acts (Government of India Act of 1919), climate zones, founders of dynasties (Mauryan), political figures (Shafiqur Rahman Barq), books by Dadabhai Naoroji, literature (The Glory of Patan), historical dates (Punjab abolishing Legislative Council), chemical compounds (curcumin in turmeric, sodium bicarbonate), music gharanas (Indore gharana founder), architecture (Pietra Dura), agriculture (Rabi season), economics (capital goods), awards (Padma Puraskars order), history (Vijayanagara kingdom dynasty), science (lycopene in tomatoes), census data (minimum literacy rate in UT), Indian Constitution (Fundamental Duties), sports (Sanjana Bathula, Women's Premier League captain), geography (Mawsynram), and international borders (India's neighbors).English Language and Comprehension: This section contains 25 questions (Q.1 to Q.25) covering spelling errors, synonyms (Ecstatic, pursue, gruelling, Energy, discern), phrasal verb errors, idiom meaning (read between the lines, a piece of cake), grammatical errors, fill in the blanks (vocabulary and parts of speech), and a five-question cloze test comprehension passage.
A question paper for the Multi-Tasking Non-Technical Staff and Havildar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024. The exam date was 21/10/2024, Shift 1. The exam time was from 9:00 AM to 11:00 AM.The paper is divided into three main sections:Numerical and Mathematical Ability: This section includes 20 questions (Q.1 to Q.20) covering topics such as average expenditure and income, speed and distance, age ratio, train problems, geometry (equilateral triangle and regular hexagon), income averages, corrected averages, profit and loss, simple interest, mixture and allegation, HCF and LCM, volume and melting, data interpretation via bar graph, discount, ratio of boys and girls, and data interpretation via a table of employees.Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving: This section contains 20 questions (Q.1 to Q.20) on topics like interchanging mathematical signs, coding-decoding, circular seating arrangement, mirror image, number sets analogy, figure series, syllogism (statements and conclusions), number series, figure completion, and English alphabetical series.General Awareness: This section includes 25 questions (Q.1 to Q.25) on diverse topics such as the Pharmacy (Amendment) Bill, 2023, Losar celebration, classical dance (Mohiniyattam performer Kanak Rele), historical acts (Government of India Act of 1919), climate zones, founders of dynasties (Mauryan), political figures (Shafiqur Rahman Barq), books by Dadabhai Naoroji, literature (The Glory of Patan), historical dates (Punjab abolishing Legislative Council), chemical compounds (curcumin in turmeric, sodium bicarbonate), music gharanas (Indore gharana founder), architecture (Pietra Dura), agriculture (Rabi season), economics (capital goods), awards (Padma Puraskars order), history (Vijayanagara kingdom dynasty), science (lycopene in tomatoes), census data (minimum literacy rate in UT), Indian Constitution (Fundamental Duties), sports (Sanjana Bathula, Women's Premier League captain), geography (Mawsynram), and international borders (India's neighbors).English Language and Comprehension: This section contains 25 questions (Q.1 to Q.25) covering spelling errors, synonyms (Ecstatic, pursue, gruelling, Energy, discern), phrasal verb errors, idiom meaning (read between the lines, a piece of cake), grammatical errors, fill in the blanks (vocabulary and parts of speech), and a five-question cloze test comprehension passage.
A question paper for the Multi-Tasking Non-Technical Staff and Havildar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024. The exam date was 18/10/2024, Shift 3. The paper is divided into three main sections:Numerical and Mathematical Ability: This section includes 20 questions (Q.1 to Q.20) covering topics such as average expenditure and income, speed and distance, age ratio, train problems, geometry (equilateral triangle and regular hexagon), income averages, corrected averages, profit and loss, simple interest, mixture and allegation, HCF and LCM, volume and melting, data interpretation via bar graph, discount, ratio of boys and girls, and data interpretation via a table of employees.Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving: This section contains 20 questions (Q.1 to Q.20) on topics like interchanging mathematical signs, coding-decoding, circular seating arrangement, mirror image, number sets analogy, figure series, syllogism (statements and conclusions), number series, figure completion, and English alphabetical series.General Awareness: This section includes 25 questions (Q.1 to Q.25) on diverse topics such as the Pharmacy (Amendment) Bill, 2023, Losar celebration, classical dance (Mohiniyattam performer Kanak Rele), historical acts (Government of India Act of 1919), climate zones, founders of dynasties (Mauryan), political figures (Shafiqur Rahman Barq), books by Dadabhai Naoroji, literature (The Glory of Patan), historical dates (Punjab abolishing Legislative Council), chemical compounds (curcumin in turmeric, sodium bicarbonate), music gharanas (Indore gharana founder), architecture (Pietra Dura), agriculture (Rabi season), economics (capital goods), awards (Padma Puraskars order), history (Vijayanagara kingdom dynasty), science (lycopene in tomatoes), census data (minimum literacy rate in UT), Indian Constitution (Fundamental Duties), sports (Sanjana Bathula, Women's Premier League captain), geography (Mawsynram), and international borders (India's neighbors).English Language and Comprehension: This section contains 25 questions (Q.1 to Q.25) covering spelling errors, synonyms (Ecstatic, pursue, gruelling, Energy, discern), phrasal verb errors, idiom meaning (read between the lines, a piece of cake), grammatical errors, fill in the blanks (vocabulary and parts of speech), and a five-question cloze test comprehension passage.
A question paper for the Multi-Tasking Non-Technical Staff and Havildar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024. The exam date was 18/10/2024, Shift 2. The exam time was from 12:30 PM to 2:30 PM.The paper is divided into three main sections:Numerical and Mathematical Ability: This section includes 20 questions (Q.1 to Q.20) covering topics such as average expenditure and income, speed and distance, age ratio, train problems, geometry (equilateral triangle and regular hexagon), income averages, corrected averages, profit and loss, simple interest, mixture and allegation, HCF and LCM, volume and melting, data interpretation via bar graph, discount, ratio of boys and girls, and data interpretation via a table of employees.Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving: This section contains 20 questions (Q.1 to Q.20) on topics like interchanging mathematical signs, coding-decoding, circular seating arrangement, mirror image, number sets analogy, figure series, syllogism (statements and conclusions), number series, figure completion, and English alphabetical series.General Awareness: This section includes 25 questions (Q.1 to Q.25) on diverse topics such as the Pharmacy (Amendment) Bill, 2023, Losar celebration, classical dance (Mohiniyattam performer Kanak Rele), historical acts (Government of India Act of 1919), climate zones, founders of dynasties (Mauryan), political figures (Shafiqur Rahman Barq), books by Dadabhai Naoroji, literature (The Glory of Patan), historical dates (Punjab abolishing Legislative Council), chemical compounds (curcumin in turmeric, sodium bicarbonate), music gharanas (Indore gharana founder), architecture (Pietra Dura), agriculture (Rabi season), economics (capital goods), awards (Padma Puraskars order), history (Vijayanagara kingdom dynasty), science (lycopene in tomatoes), census data (minimum literacy rate in UT), Indian Constitution (Fundamental Duties), sports (Sanjana Bathula, Women's Premier League captain), geography (Mawsynram), and international borders (India's neighbors).English Language and Comprehension: This section contains 25 questions (Q.1 to Q.25) covering spelling errors, synonyms (Ecstatic, pursue, gruelling, Energy, discern), phrasal verb errors, idiom meaning (read between the lines, a piece of cake), grammatical errors, fill in the blanks (vocabulary and parts of speech), and a five-question cloze test comprehension passage.
A question paper for the Multi-Tasking Non-Technical Staff and Havildar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024. The exam date was 18/10/2024, Shift 1. The exam time was from 9:00 AM to 11:00 AM.The paper is divided into three main sections:Numerical and Mathematical Ability: This section includes 20 questions (Q.1 to Q.20) covering topics such as average expenditure and income, speed and distance, age ratio, train problems, geometry (equilateral triangle and regular hexagon), income averages, corrected averages, profit and loss, simple interest, mixture and allegation, HCF and LCM, volume and melting, data interpretation via bar graph, discount, ratio of boys and girls, and data interpretation via a table of employees.Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving: This section contains 20 questions (Q.1 to Q.20) on topics like interchanging mathematical signs, coding-decoding, circular seating arrangement, mirror image, number sets analogy, figure series, syllogism (statements and conclusions), number series, figure completion, and English alphabetical series.General Awareness: This section includes 25 questions (Q.1 to Q.25) on diverse topics such as the Pharmacy (Amendment) Bill, 2023, Losar celebration, classical dance (Mohiniyattam performer Kanak Rele), historical acts (Government of India Act of 1919), climate zones, founders of dynasties (Mauryan), political figures (Shafiqur Rahman Barq), books by Dadabhai Naoroji, literature (The Glory of Patan), historical dates (Punjab abolishing Legislative Council), chemical compounds (curcumin in turmeric, sodium bicarbonate), music gharanas (Indore gharana founder), architecture (Pietra Dura), agriculture (Rabi season), economics (capital goods), awards (Padma Puraskars order), history (Vijayanagara kingdom dynasty), science (lycopene in tomatoes), census data (minimum literacy rate in UT), Indian Constitution (Fundamental Duties), sports (Sanjana Bathula, Women's Premier League captain), geography (Mawsynram), and international borders (India's neighbors).English Language and Comprehension: This section contains 25 questions (Q.1 to Q.25) covering spelling errors, synonyms (Ecstatic, pursue, gruelling, Energy, discern), phrasal verb errors, idiom meaning (read between the lines, a piece of cake), grammatical errors, fill in the blanks (vocabulary and parts of speech), and a five-question cloze test comprehension passage.
A question paper for the Multi-Tasking Non-Technical Staff and Havildar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024. The exam date was 17/10/2024, Shift 3. The paper is divided into three main sections:Numerical and Mathematical Ability: This section includes 20 questions (Q.1 to Q.20) covering topics such as average expenditure and income, speed and distance, age ratio, train problems, geometry (equilateral triangle and regular hexagon), income averages, corrected averages, profit and loss, simple interest, mixture and allegation, HCF and LCM, volume and melting, data interpretation via bar graph, discount, ratio of boys and girls, and data interpretation via a table of employees.Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving: This section contains 20 questions (Q.1 to Q.20) on topics like interchanging mathematical signs, coding-decoding, circular seating arrangement, mirror image, number sets analogy, figure series, syllogism (statements and conclusions), number series, figure completion, and English alphabetical series.General Awareness: This section includes 25 questions (Q.1 to Q.25) on diverse topics such as the Pharmacy (Amendment) Bill, 2023, Losar celebration, classical dance (Mohiniyattam performer Kanak Rele), historical acts (Government of India Act of 1919), climate zones, founders of dynasties (Mauryan), political figures (Shafiqur Rahman Barq), books by Dadabhai Naoroji, literature (The Glory of Patan), historical dates (Punjab abolishing Legislative Council), chemical compounds (curcumin in turmeric, sodium bicarbonate), music gharanas (Indore gharana founder), architecture (Pietra Dura), agriculture (Rabi season), economics (capital goods), awards (Padma Puraskars order), history (Vijayanagara kingdom dynasty), science (lycopene in tomatoes), census data (minimum literacy rate in UT), Indian Constitution (Fundamental Duties), sports (Sanjana Bathula, Women's Premier League captain), geography (Mawsynram), and international borders (India's neighbors).English Language and Comprehension: This section contains 25 questions (Q.1 to Q.25) covering spelling errors, synonyms (Ecstatic, pursue, gruelling, Energy, discern), phrasal verb errors, idiom meaning (read between the lines, a piece of cake), grammatical errors, fill in the blanks (vocabulary and parts of speech), and a five-question cloze test comprehension passage.
A question paper for the Multi-Tasking Non-Technical Staff and Havildar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024. The exam date was 17/10/2024, Shift 2. The exam time was from 12:30 PM to 2:30 PM.The paper is divided into three main sections:Numerical and Mathematical Ability: This section includes 20 questions (Q.1 to Q.20) covering topics such as average expenditure and income, speed and distance, age ratio, train problems, geometry (equilateral triangle and regular hexagon), income averages, corrected averages, profit and loss, simple interest, mixture and allegation, HCF and LCM, volume and melting, data interpretation via bar graph, discount, ratio of boys and girls, and data interpretation via a table of employees.Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving: This section contains 20 questions (Q.1 to Q.20) on topics like interchanging mathematical signs, coding-decoding, circular seating arrangement, mirror image, number sets analogy, figure series, syllogism (statements and conclusions), number series, figure completion, and English alphabetical series.General Awareness: This section includes 25 questions (Q.1 to Q.25) on diverse topics such as the Pharmacy (Amendment) Bill, 2023, Losar celebration, classical dance (Mohiniyattam performer Kanak Rele), historical acts (Government of India Act of 1919), climate zones, founders of dynasties (Mauryan), political figures (Shafiqur Rahman Barq), books by Dadabhai Naoroji, literature (The Glory of Patan), historical dates (Punjab abolishing Legislative Council), chemical compounds (curcumin in turmeric, sodium bicarbonate), music gharanas (Indore gharana founder), architecture (Pietra Dura), agriculture (Rabi season), economics (capital goods), awards (Padma Puraskars order), history (Vijayanagara kingdom dynasty), science (lycopene in tomatoes), census data (minimum literacy rate in UT), Indian Constitution (Fundamental Duties), sports (Sanjana Bathula, Women's Premier League captain), geography (Mawsynram), and international borders (India's neighbors).English Language and Comprehension: This section contains 25 questions (Q.1 to Q.25) covering spelling errors, synonyms (Ecstatic, pursue, gruelling, Energy, discern), phrasal verb errors, idiom meaning (read between the lines, a piece of cake), grammatical errors, fill in the blanks (vocabulary and parts of speech), and a five-question cloze test comprehension passage.
A question paper for the Multi-Tasking Non-Technical Staff and Havildar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024. The exam date was 17/10/2024, Shift 2. The exam time was from 12:30 PM to 2:30 PM.The paper is divided into three main sections:Numerical and Mathematical Ability: This section includes 20 questions (Q.1 to Q.20) covering topics such as average expenditure and income, speed and distance, age ratio, train problems, geometry (equilateral triangle and regular hexagon), income averages, corrected averages, profit and loss, simple interest, mixture and allegation, HCF and LCM, volume and melting, data interpretation via bar graph, discount, ratio of boys and girls, and data interpretation via a table of employees.Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving: This section contains 20 questions (Q.1 to Q.20) on topics like interchanging mathematical signs, coding-decoding, circular seating arrangement, mirror image, number sets analogy, figure series, syllogism (statements and conclusions), number series, figure completion, and English alphabetical series.General Awareness: This section includes 25 questions (Q.1 to Q.25) on diverse topics such as the Pharmacy (Amendment) Bill, 2023, Losar celebration, classical dance (Mohiniyattam performer Kanak Rele), historical acts (Government of India Act of 1919), climate zones, founders of dynasties (Mauryan), political figures (Shafiqur Rahman Barq), books by Dadabhai Naoroji, literature (The Glory of Patan), historical dates (Punjab abolishing Legislative Council), chemical compounds (curcumin in turmeric, sodium bicarbonate), music gharanas (Indore gharana founder), architecture (Pietra Dura), agriculture (Rabi season), economics (capital goods), awards (Padma Puraskars order), history (Vijayanagara kingdom dynasty), science (lycopene in tomatoes), census data (minimum literacy rate in UT), Indian Constitution (Fundamental Duties), sports (Sanjana Bathula, Women's Premier League captain), geography (Mawsynram), and international borders (India's neighbors).English Language and Comprehension: This section contains 25 questions (Q.1 to Q.25) covering spelling errors, synonyms (Ecstatic, pursue, gruelling, Energy, discern), phrasal verb errors, idiom meaning (read between the lines, a piece of cake), grammatical errors, fill in the blanks (vocabulary and parts of speech), and a five-question cloze test comprehension passage.
A question paper for the Multi-Tasking Non-Technical Staff and Havildar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024. The exam date was 16/10/2024, Shift 3. The paper is divided into three main sections:Numerical and Mathematical Ability: This section includes 20 questions (Q.1 to Q.20) covering topics such as average expenditure and income, speed and distance, age ratio, train problems, geometry (equilateral triangle and regular hexagon), income averages, corrected averages, profit and loss, simple interest, mixture and allegation, HCF and LCM, volume and melting, data interpretation via bar graph, discount, ratio of boys and girls, and data interpretation via a table of employees.Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving: This section contains 20 questions (Q.1 to Q.20) on topics like interchanging mathematical signs, coding-decoding, circular seating arrangement, mirror image, number sets analogy, figure series, syllogism (statements and conclusions), number series, figure completion, and English alphabetical series.General Awareness: This section includes 25 questions (Q.1 to Q.25) on diverse topics such as the Pharmacy (Amendment) Bill, 2023, Losar celebration, classical dance (Mohiniyattam performer Kanak Rele), historical acts (Government of India Act of 1919), climate zones, founders of dynasties (Mauryan), political figures (Shafiqur Rahman Barq), books by Dadabhai Naoroji, literature (The Glory of Patan), historical dates (Punjab abolishing Legislative Council), chemical compounds (curcumin in turmeric, sodium bicarbonate), music gharanas (Indore gharana founder), architecture (Pietra Dura), agriculture (Rabi season), economics (capital goods), awards (Padma Puraskars order), history (Vijayanagara kingdom dynasty), science (lycopene in tomatoes), census data (minimum literacy rate in UT), Indian Constitution (Fundamental Duties), sports (Sanjana Bathula, Women's Premier League captain), geography (Mawsynram), and international borders (India's neighbors).English Language and Comprehension: This section contains 25 questions (Q.1 to Q.25) covering spelling errors, synonyms (Ecstatic, pursue, gruelling, Energy, discern), phrasal verb errors, idiom meaning (read between the lines, a piece of cake), grammatical errors, fill in the blanks (vocabulary and parts of speech), and a five-question cloze test comprehension passage.
A question paper for the Multi-Tasking Non-Technical Staff and Havildar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024. The exam date was 16/10/2024, Shift 2. The exam time was from 12:30 PM to 02:30 PM.The paper is divided into three main sections:Numerical and Mathematical Ability: This section includes 20 questions (Q.1 to Q.20) covering topics such as average expenditure and income, speed and distance, age ratio, train problems, geometry (equilateral triangle and regular hexagon), income averages, corrected averages, profit and loss, simple interest, mixture and allegation, HCF and LCM, volume and melting, data interpretation via bar graph, discount, ratio of boys and girls, and data interpretation via a table of employees.Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving: This section contains 20 questions (Q.1 to Q.20) on topics like interchanging mathematical signs, coding-decoding, circular seating arrangement, mirror image, number sets analogy, figure series, syllogism (statements and conclusions), number series, figure completion, and English alphabetical series.General Awareness: This section includes 25 questions (Q.1 to Q.25) on diverse topics such as the Pharmacy (Amendment) Bill, 2023, Losar celebration, classical dance (Mohiniyattam performer Kanak Rele), historical acts (Government of India Act of 1919), climate zones, founders of dynasties (Mauryan), political figures (Shafiqur Rahman Barq), books by Dadabhai Naoroji, literature (The Glory of Patan), historical dates (Punjab abolishing Legislative Council), chemical compounds (curcumin in turmeric, sodium bicarbonate), music gharanas (Indore gharana founder), architecture (Pietra Dura), agriculture (Rabi season), economics (capital goods), awards (Padma Puraskars order), history (Vijayanagara kingdom dynasty), science (lycopene in tomatoes), census data (minimum literacy rate in UT), Indian Constitution (Fundamental Duties), sports (Sanjana Bathula, Women's Premier League captain), geography (Mawsynram), and international borders (India's neighbors).English Language and Comprehension: This section contains 25 questions (Q.1 to Q.25) covering spelling errors, synonyms (Ecstatic, pursue, gruelling, Energy, discern), phrasal verb errors, idiom meaning (read between the lines, a piece of cake), grammatical errors, fill in the blanks (vocabulary and parts of speech), and a five-question cloze test comprehension passage.
A question paper for the Multi-Tasking Non-Technical Staff and Havildar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024. The exam date was 16/10/2024, Shift 1. The exam time was from 9:00 AM to 11:00 AM.The paper is divided into three main sections:Numerical and Mathematical Ability: This section includes 20 questions (Q.1 to Q.20) covering topics such as average expenditure and income, speed and distance, age ratio, train problems, geometry (equilateral triangle and regular hexagon), income averages, corrected averages, profit and loss, simple interest, mixture and allegation, HCF and LCM, volume and melting, data interpretation via bar graph, discount, ratio of boys and girls, and data interpretation via a table of employees.Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving: This section contains 20 questions (Q.1 to Q.20) on topics like interchanging mathematical signs, coding-decoding, circular seating arrangement, mirror image, number sets analogy, figure series, syllogism (statements and conclusions), number series, figure completion, and English alphabetical series.General Awareness: This section includes 25 questions (Q.1 to Q.25) on diverse topics such as the Pharmacy (Amendment) Bill, 2023, Losar celebration, classical dance (Mohiniyattam performer Kanak Rele), historical acts (Government of India Act of 1919), climate zones, founders of dynasties (Mauryan), political figures (Shafiqur Rahman Barq), books by Dadabhai Naoroji, literature (The Glory of Patan), historical dates (Punjab abolishing Legislative Council), chemical compounds (curcumin in turmeric, sodium bicarbonate), music gharanas (Indore gharana founder), architecture (Pietra Dura), agriculture (Rabi season), economics (capital goods), awards (Padma Puraskars order), history (Vijayanagara kingdom dynasty), science (lycopene in tomatoes), census data (minimum literacy rate in UT), Indian Constitution (Fundamental Duties), sports (Sanjana Bathula, Women's Premier League captain), geography (Mawsynram), and international borders (India's neighbors).English Language and Comprehension: This section contains 25 questions (Q.1 to Q.25) covering spelling errors, synonyms (Ecstatic, pursue, gruelling, Energy, discern), phrasal verb errors, idiom meaning (read between the lines, a piece of cake), grammatical errors, fill in the blanks (vocabulary and parts of speech), and a five-question cloze test comprehension passage.
A question paper for the Multi-Tasking Non-Technical Staff and Havildar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024. The exam date was 15/10/2024, Shift 3. The paper is divided into three main sections:Numerical and Mathematical Ability: This section includes 20 questions (Q.1 to Q.20) covering topics such as average expenditure and income, speed and distance, age ratio, train problems, geometry (equilateral triangle and regular hexagon), income averages, corrected averages, profit and loss, simple interest, mixture and allegation, HCF and LCM, volume and melting, data interpretation via bar graph, discount, ratio of boys and girls, and data interpretation via a table of employees.Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving: This section contains 20 questions (Q.1 to Q.20) on topics like interchanging mathematical signs, coding-decoding, circular seating arrangement, mirror image, number sets analogy, figure series, syllogism (statements and conclusions), number series, figure completion, and English alphabetical series.General Awareness: This section includes 25 questions (Q.1 to Q.25) on diverse topics such as the Pharmacy (Amendment) Bill, 2023, Losar celebration, classical dance (Mohiniyattam performer Kanak Rele), historical acts (Government of India Act of 1919), climate zones, founders of dynasties (Mauryan), political figures (Shafiqur Rahman Barq), books by Dadabhai Naoroji, literature (The Glory of Patan), historical dates (Punjab abolishing Legislative Council), chemical compounds (curcumin in turmeric, sodium bicarbonate), music gharanas (Indore gharana founder), architecture (Pietra Dura), agriculture (Rabi season), economics (capital goods), awards (Padma Puraskars order), history (Vijayanagara kingdom dynasty), science (lycopene in tomatoes), census data (minimum literacy rate in UT), Indian Constitution (Fundamental Duties), sports (Sanjana Bathula, Women's Premier League captain), geography (Mawsynram), and international borders (India's neighbors).English Language and Comprehension: This section contains 25 questions (Q.1 to Q.25) covering spelling errors, synonyms (Ecstatic, pursue, gruelling, Energy, discern), phrasal verb errors, idiom meaning (read between the lines, a piece of cake), grammatical errors, fill in the blanks (vocabulary and parts of speech), and a five-question cloze test comprehension passage.
A question paper for the Multi-Tasking Non-Technical Staff and Havildar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024. The exam date was 15/10/2024, Shift 2. The exam time was from 12:30 PM to 2:30 PM.The paper is divided into three main sections:Numerical and Mathematical Ability: This section includes 20 questions (Q.1 to Q.20) covering topics such as average expenditure and income, speed and distance, age ratio, train problems, geometry (equilateral triangle and regular hexagon), income averages, corrected averages, profit and loss, simple interest, mixture and allegation, HCF and LCM, volume and melting, data interpretation via bar graph, discount, ratio of boys and girls, and data interpretation via a table of employees.Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving: This section contains 20 questions (Q.1 to Q.20) on topics like interchanging mathematical signs, coding-decoding, circular seating arrangement, mirror image, number sets analogy, figure series, syllogism (statements and conclusions), number series, figure completion, and English alphabetical series.General Awareness: This section includes 25 questions (Q.1 to Q.25) on diverse topics such as the Pharmacy (Amendment) Bill, 2023, Losar celebration, classical dance (Mohiniyattam performer Kanak Rele), historical acts (Government of India Act of 1919), climate zones, founders of dynasties (Mauryan), political figures (Shafiqur Rahman Barq), books by Dadabhai Naoroji, literature (The Glory of Patan), historical dates (Punjab abolishing Legislative Council), chemical compounds (curcumin in turmeric, sodium bicarbonate), music gharanas (Indore gharana founder), architecture (Pietra Dura), agriculture (Rabi season), economics (capital goods), awards (Padma Puraskars order), history (Vijayanagara kingdom dynasty), science (lycopene in tomatoes), census data (minimum literacy rate in UT), Indian Constitution (Fundamental Duties), sports (Sanjana Bathula, Women's Premier League captain), geography (Mawsynram), and international borders (India's neighbors).English Language and Comprehension: This section contains 25 questions (Q.1 to Q.25) covering spelling errors, synonyms (Ecstatic, pursue, gruelling, Energy, discern), phrasal verb errors, idiom meaning (read between the lines, a piece of cake), grammatical errors, fill in the blanks (vocabulary and parts of speech), and a five-question cloze test comprehension passage.
A question paper for the Multi-Tasking Non-Technical Staff and Havildar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024. The exam date was 15/10/2024, Shift 1. The exam time was from 9:00 AM to 11:00 AM.The paper is divided into three main sections:Numerical and Mathematical Ability: This section includes 20 questions (Q.1 to Q.20) covering topics such as average expenditure and income, speed and distance, age ratio, train problems, geometry (equilateral triangle and regular hexagon), income averages, corrected averages, profit and loss, simple interest, mixture and allegation, HCF and LCM, volume and melting, data interpretation via bar graph, discount, ratio of boys and girls, and data interpretation via a table of employees.Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving: This section contains 20 questions (Q.1 to Q.20) on topics like interchanging mathematical signs, coding-decoding, circular seating arrangement, mirror image, number sets analogy, figure series, syllogism (statements and conclusions), number series, figure completion, and English alphabetical series.General Awareness: This section includes 25 questions (Q.1 to Q.25) on diverse topics such as the Pharmacy (Amendment) Bill, 2023, Losar celebration, classical dance (Mohiniyattam performer Kanak Rele), historical acts (Government of India Act of 1919), climate zones, founders of dynasties (Mauryan), political figures (Shafiqur Rahman Barq), books by Dadabhai Naoroji, literature (The Glory of Patan), historical dates (Punjab abolishing Legislative Council), chemical compounds (curcumin in turmeric, sodium bicarbonate), music gharanas (Indore gharana founder), architecture (Pietra Dura), agriculture (Rabi season), economics (capital goods), awards (Padma Puraskars order), history (Vijayanagara kingdom dynasty), science (lycopene in tomatoes), census data (minimum literacy rate in UT), Indian Constitution (Fundamental Duties), sports (Sanjana Bathula, Women's Premier League captain), geography (Mawsynram), and international borders (India's neighbors).English Language and Comprehension: This section contains 25 questions (Q.1 to Q.25) covering spelling errors, synonyms (Ecstatic, pursue, gruelling, Energy, discern), phrasal verb errors, idiom meaning (read between the lines, a piece of cake), grammatical errors, fill in the blanks (vocabulary and parts of speech), and a five-question cloze test comprehension passage.
A question paper for the Multi-Tasking Non-Technical Staff and Havildar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024. The exam date was 14/10/2024, Shift 3. The paper is divided into three main sections:Numerical and Mathematical Ability: This section includes 20 questions (Q.1 to Q.20) covering topics such as average expenditure and income, speed and distance, age ratio, train problems, geometry (equilateral triangle and regular hexagon), income averages, corrected averages, profit and loss, simple interest, mixture and allegation, HCF and LCM, volume and melting, data interpretation via bar graph, discount, ratio of boys and girls, and data interpretation via a table of employees.Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving: This section contains 20 questions (Q.1 to Q.20) on topics like interchanging mathematical signs, coding-decoding, circular seating arrangement, mirror image, number sets analogy, figure series, syllogism (statements and conclusions), number series, figure completion, and English alphabetical series.General Awareness: This section includes 25 questions (Q.1 to Q.25) on diverse topics such as the Pharmacy (Amendment) Bill, 2023, Losar celebration, classical dance (Mohiniyattam performer Kanak Rele), historical acts (Government of India Act of 1919), climate zones, founders of dynasties (Mauryan), political figures (Shafiqur Rahman Barq), books by Dadabhai Naoroji, literature (The Glory of Patan), historical dates (Punjab abolishing Legislative Council), chemical compounds (curcumin in turmeric, sodium bicarbonate), music gharanas (Indore gharana founder), architecture (Pietra Dura), agriculture (Rabi season), economics (capital goods), awards (Padma Puraskars order), history (Vijayanagara kingdom dynasty), science (lycopene in tomatoes), census data (minimum literacy rate in UT), Indian Constitution (Fundamental Duties), sports (Sanjana Bathula, Women's Premier League captain), geography (Mawsynram), and international borders (India's neighbors).English Language and Comprehension: This section contains 25 questions (Q.1 to Q.25) covering spelling errors, synonyms (Ecstatic, pursue, gruelling, Energy, discern), phrasal verb errors, idiom meaning (read between the lines, a piece of cake), grammatical errors, fill in the blanks (vocabulary and parts of speech), and a five-question cloze test comprehension passage.
A question paper for the Multi-Tasking Non-Technical Staff and Havildar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024. The exam date was 14/10/2024, Shift 2. The exam time was from 12:30 PM to 2:30 PM.The paper is divided into three main sections:Numerical and Mathematical Ability: This section includes 20 questions (Q.1 to Q.20) covering topics such as average expenditure and income, speed and distance, age ratio, train problems, geometry (equilateral triangle and regular hexagon), income averages, corrected averages, profit and loss, simple interest, mixture and allegation, HCF and LCM, volume and melting, data interpretation via bar graph, discount, ratio of boys and girls, and data interpretation via a table of employees.Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving: This section contains 20 questions (Q.1 to Q.20) on topics like interchanging mathematical signs, coding-decoding, circular seating arrangement, mirror image, number sets analogy, figure series, syllogism (statements and conclusions), number series, figure completion, and English alphabetical series.General Awareness: This section includes 25 questions (Q.1 to Q.25) on diverse topics such as the Pharmacy (Amendment) Bill, 2023, Losar celebration, classical dance (Mohiniyattam performer Kanak Rele), historical acts (Government of India Act of 1919), climate zones, founders of dynasties (Mauryan), political figures (Shafiqur Rahman Barq), books by Dadabhai Naoroji, literature (The Glory of Patan), historical dates (Punjab abolishing Legislative Council), chemical compounds (curcumin in turmeric, sodium bicarbonate), music gharanas (Indore gharana founder), architecture (Pietra Dura), agriculture (Rabi season), economics (capital goods), awards (Padma Puraskars order), history (Vijayanagara kingdom dynasty), science (lycopene in tomatoes), census data (minimum literacy rate in UT), Indian Constitution (Fundamental Duties), sports (Sanjana Bathula, Women's Premier League captain), geography (Mawsynram), and international borders (India's neighbors).English Language and Comprehension: This section contains 25 questions (Q.1 to Q.25) covering spelling errors, synonyms (Ecstatic, pursue, gruelling, Energy, discern), phrasal verb errors, idiom meaning (read between the lines, a piece of cake), grammatical errors, fill in the blanks (vocabulary and parts of speech), and a five-question cloze test comprehension passage.
A question paper for the Multi-Tasking Non-Technical Staff and Havildar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024. The exam date was 14/10/2024, Shift 1. The exam time was from 9:00 AM to 11:00 AM.The paper is divided into three main sections:Numerical and Mathematical Ability: This section includes 20 questions (Q.1 to Q.20) covering topics such as average expenditure and income, speed and distance, age ratio, train problems, geometry (equilateral triangle and regular hexagon), income averages, corrected averages, profit and loss, simple interest, mixture and allegation, HCF and LCM, volume and melting, data interpretation via bar graph, discount, ratio of boys and girls, and data interpretation via a table of employees.Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving: This section contains 20 questions (Q.1 to Q.20) on topics like interchanging mathematical signs, coding-decoding, circular seating arrangement, mirror image, number sets analogy, figure series, syllogism (statements and conclusions), number series, figure completion, and English alphabetical series.General Awareness: This section includes 25 questions (Q.1 to Q.25) on diverse topics such as the Pharmacy (Amendment) Bill, 2023, Losar celebration, classical dance (Mohiniyattam performer Kanak Rele), historical acts (Government of India Act of 1919), climate zones, founders of dynasties (Mauryan), political figures (Shafiqur Rahman Barq), books by Dadabhai Naoroji, literature (The Glory of Patan), historical dates (Punjab abolishing Legislative Council), chemical compounds (curcumin in turmeric, sodium bicarbonate), music gharanas (Indore gharana founder), architecture (Pietra Dura), agriculture (Rabi season), economics (capital goods), awards (Padma Puraskars order), history (Vijayanagara kingdom dynasty), science (lycopene in tomatoes), census data (minimum literacy rate in UT), Indian Constitution (Fundamental Duties), sports (Sanjana Bathula, Women's Premier League captain), geography (Mawsynram), and international borders (India's neighbors).English Language and Comprehension: This section contains 25 questions (Q.1 to Q.25) covering spelling errors, synonyms (Ecstatic, pursue, gruelling, Energy, discern), phrasal verb errors, idiom meaning (read between the lines, a piece of cake), grammatical errors, fill in the blanks (vocabulary and parts of speech), and a five-question cloze test comprehension passage.
A question paper for the Multi-Tasking Non-Technical Staff and Havildar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024. The exam date was 09/10/2024, Shift 3. The paper is divided into three main sections:Numerical and Mathematical Ability: This section includes 20 questions (Q.1 to Q.20) covering topics such as average expenditure and income, speed and distance, age ratio, train problems, geometry (equilateral triangle and regular hexagon), income averages, corrected averages, profit and loss, simple interest, mixture and allegation, HCF and LCM, volume and melting, data interpretation via bar graph, discount, ratio of boys and girls, and data interpretation via a table of employees.Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving: This section contains 20 questions (Q.1 to Q.20) on topics like interchanging mathematical signs, coding-decoding, circular seating arrangement, mirror image, number sets analogy, figure series, syllogism (statements and conclusions), number series, figure completion, and English alphabetical series.General Awareness: This section includes 25 questions (Q.1 to Q.25) on diverse topics such as the Pharmacy (Amendment) Bill, 2023, Losar celebration, classical dance (Mohiniyattam performer Kanak Rele), historical acts (Government of India Act of 1919), climate zones, founders of dynasties (Mauryan), political figures (Shafiqur Rahman Barq), books by Dadabhai Naoroji, literature (The Glory of Patan), historical dates (Punjab abolishing Legislative Council), chemical compounds (curcumin in turmeric, sodium bicarbonate), music gharanas (Indore gharana founder), architecture (Pietra Dura), agriculture (Rabi season), economics (capital goods), awards (Padma Puraskars order), history (Vijayanagara kingdom dynasty), science (lycopene in tomatoes), census data (minimum literacy rate in UT), Indian Constitution (Fundamental Duties), sports (Sanjana Bathula, Women's Premier League captain), geography (Mawsynram), and international borders (India's neighbors).English Language and Comprehension: This section contains 25 questions (Q.1 to Q.25) covering spelling errors, synonyms (Ecstatic, pursue, gruelling, Energy, discern), phrasal verb errors, idiom meaning (read between the lines, a piece of cake), grammatical errors, fill in the blanks (vocabulary and parts of speech), and a five-question cloze test comprehension passage.
A question paper for the Multi-Tasking Non-Technical Staff and Havildar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024. The exam date was 09/10/2024, Shift 2. The exam time was from 12:30 PM to 2:30 PM.The paper is divided into three main sections:Numerical and Mathematical Ability: This section includes 20 questions (Q.1 to Q.20) covering topics such as average expenditure and income, speed and distance, age ratio, train problems, geometry (equilateral triangle and regular hexagon), income averages, corrected averages, profit and loss, simple interest, mixture and allegation, HCF and LCM, volume and melting, data interpretation via bar graph, discount, ratio of boys and girls, and data interpretation via a table of employees.Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving: This section contains 20 questions (Q.1 to Q.20) on topics like interchanging mathematical signs, coding-decoding, circular seating arrangement, mirror image, number sets analogy, figure series, syllogism (statements and conclusions), number series, figure completion, and English alphabetical series.General Awareness: This section includes 25 questions (Q.1 to Q.25) on diverse topics such as the Pharmacy (Amendment) Bill, 2023, Losar celebration, classical dance (Mohiniyattam performer Kanak Rele), historical acts (Government of India Act of 1919), climate zones, founders of dynasties (Mauryan), political figures (Shafiqur Rahman Barq), books by Dadabhai Naoroji, literature (The Glory of Patan), historical dates (Punjab abolishing Legislative Council), chemical compounds (curcumin in turmeric, sodium bicarbonate), music gharanas (Indore gharana founder), architecture (Pietra Dura), agriculture (Rabi season), economics (capital goods), awards (Padma Puraskars order), history (Vijayanagara kingdom dynasty), science (lycopene in tomatoes), census data (minimum literacy rate in UT), Indian Constitution (Fundamental Duties), sports (Sanjana Bathula, Women's Premier League captain), geography (Mawsynram), and international borders (India's neighbors).English Language and Comprehension: This section contains 25 questions (Q.1 to Q.25) covering spelling errors, synonyms (Ecstatic, pursue, gruelling, Energy, discern), phrasal verb errors, idiom meaning (read between the lines, a piece of cake), grammatical errors, fill in the blanks (vocabulary and parts of speech), and a five-question cloze test comprehension passage.
A question paper for the Multi-Tasking Non-Technical Staff and Havildar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024. The exam date was 09/10/2024, Shift 1. The exam time was from 9:00 AM to 11:00 AM.The paper is divided into three main sections:Numerical and Mathematical Ability: This section includes 20 questions (Q.1 to Q.20) covering topics such as average expenditure and income, speed and distance, age ratio, train problems, geometry (equilateral triangle and regular hexagon), income averages, corrected averages, profit and loss, simple interest, mixture and allegation, HCF and LCM, volume and melting, data interpretation via bar graph, discount, ratio of boys and girls, and data interpretation via a table of employees.Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving: This section contains 20 questions (Q.1 to Q.20) on topics like interchanging mathematical signs, coding-decoding, circular seating arrangement, mirror image, number sets analogy, figure series, syllogism (statements and conclusions), number series, figure completion, and English alphabetical series.General Awareness: This section includes 25 questions (Q.1 to Q.25) on diverse topics such as the Pharmacy (Amendment) Bill, 2023, Losar celebration, classical dance (Mohiniyattam performer Kanak Rele), historical acts (Government of India Act of 1919), climate zones, founders of dynasties (Mauryan), political figures (Shafiqur Rahman Barq), books by Dadabhai Naoroji, literature (The Glory of Patan), historical dates (Punjab abolishing Legislative Council), chemical compounds (curcumin in turmeric, sodium bicarbonate), music gharanas (Indore gharana founder), architecture (Pietra Dura), agriculture (Rabi season), economics (capital goods), awards (Padma Puraskars order), history (Vijayanagara kingdom dynasty), science (lycopene in tomatoes), census data (minimum literacy rate in UT), Indian Constitution (Fundamental Duties), sports (Sanjana Bathula, Women's Premier League captain), geography (Mawsynram), and international borders (India's neighbors).English Language and Comprehension: This section contains 25 questions (Q.1 to Q.25) covering spelling errors, synonyms (Ecstatic, pursue, gruelling, Energy, discern), phrasal verb errors, idiom meaning (read between the lines, a piece of cake), grammatical errors, fill in the blanks (vocabulary and parts of speech), and a five-question cloze test comprehension passage.
A question paper for the Multi-Tasking Non-Technical Staff and Havildar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024. The exam date was 08/10/2024, Shift 3. The paper is divided into three main sections:Numerical and Mathematical Ability: This section includes 20 questions (Q.1 to Q.20) covering topics such as average expenditure and income, speed and distance, age ratio, train problems, geometry (equilateral triangle and regular hexagon), income averages, corrected averages, profit and loss, simple interest, mixture and allegation, HCF and LCM, volume and melting, data interpretation via bar graph, discount, ratio of boys and girls, and data interpretation via a table of employees.Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving: This section contains 20 questions (Q.1 to Q.20) on topics like interchanging mathematical signs, coding-decoding, circular seating arrangement, mirror image, number sets analogy, figure series, syllogism (statements and conclusions), number series, figure completion, and English alphabetical series.General Awareness: This section includes 25 questions (Q.1 to Q.25) on diverse topics such as the Pharmacy (Amendment) Bill, 2023, Losar celebration, classical dance (Mohiniyattam performer Kanak Rele), historical acts (Government of India Act of 1919), climate zones, founders of dynasties (Mauryan), political figures (Shafiqur Rahman Barq), books by Dadabhai Naoroji, literature (The Glory of Patan), historical dates (Punjab abolishing Legislative Council), chemical compounds (curcumin in turmeric, sodium bicarbonate), music gharanas (Indore gharana founder), architecture (Pietra Dura), agriculture (Rabi season), economics (capital goods), awards (Padma Puraskars order), history (Vijayanagara kingdom dynasty), science (lycopene in tomatoes), census data (minimum literacy rate in UT), Indian Constitution (Fundamental Duties), sports (Sanjana Bathula, Women's Premier League captain), geography (Mawsynram), and international borders (India's neighbors).English Language and Comprehension: This section contains 25 questions (Q.1 to Q.25) covering spelling errors, synonyms (Ecstatic, pursue, gruelling, Energy, discern), phrasal verb errors, idiom meaning (read between the lines, a piece of cake), grammatical errors, fill in the blanks (vocabulary and parts of speech), and a five-question cloze test comprehension passage.
A question paper for the Multi-Tasking Non-Technical Staff and Havildar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024. The exam date was 08/10/2024, Shift 2. The exam time was from 12:30 PM to 2:30 PM.The paper is divided into three main sections:Numerical and Mathematical Ability: This section includes 20 questions (Q.1 to Q.20) covering topics such as average expenditure and income, speed and distance, age ratio, train problems, geometry (equilateral triangle and regular hexagon), income averages, corrected averages, profit and loss, simple interest, mixture and allegation, HCF and LCM, volume and melting, data interpretation via bar graph, discount, ratio of boys and girls, and data interpretation via a table of employees.Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving: This section contains 20 questions (Q.1 to Q.20) on topics like interchanging mathematical signs, coding-decoding, circular seating arrangement, mirror image, number sets analogy, figure series, syllogism (statements and conclusions), number series, figure completion, and English alphabetical series.General Awareness: This section includes 25 questions (Q.1 to Q.25) on diverse topics such as the Pharmacy (Amendment) Bill, 2023, Losar celebration, classical dance (Mohiniyattam performer Kanak Rele), historical acts (Government of India Act of 1919), climate zones, founders of dynasties (Mauryan), political figures (Shafiqur Rahman Barq), books by Dadabhai Naoroji, literature (The Glory of Patan), historical dates (Punjab abolishing Legislative Council), chemical compounds (curcumin in turmeric, sodium bicarbonate), music gharanas (Indore gharana founder), architecture (Pietra Dura), agriculture (Rabi season), economics (capital goods), awards (Padma Puraskars order), history (Vijayanagara kingdom dynasty), science (lycopene in tomatoes), census data (minimum literacy rate in UT), Indian Constitution (Fundamental Duties), sports (Sanjana Bathula, Women's Premier League captain), geography (Mawsynram), and international borders (India's neighbors).English Language and Comprehension: This section contains 25 questions (Q.1 to Q.25) covering spelling errors, synonyms (Ecstatic, pursue, gruelling, Energy, discern), phrasal verb errors, idiom meaning (read between the lines, a piece of cake), grammatical errors, fill in the blanks (vocabulary and parts of speech), and a five-question cloze test comprehension passage.
A question paper for the Multi-Tasking Non-Technical Staff and Havildar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024. The exam date was 08/10/2024, Shift 1. The exam time was from 9:00 AM to 11:00 AM.The paper is divided into three main sections:Numerical and Mathematical Ability: This section includes 20 questions (Q.1 to Q.20) covering topics such as average expenditure and income, speed and distance, age ratio, train problems, geometry (equilateral triangle and regular hexagon), income averages, corrected averages, profit and loss, simple interest, mixture and allegation, HCF and LCM, volume and melting, data interpretation via bar graph, discount, ratio of boys and girls, and data interpretation via a table of employees.Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving: This section contains 20 questions (Q.1 to Q.20) on topics like interchanging mathematical signs, coding-decoding, circular seating arrangement, mirror image, number sets analogy, figure series, syllogism (statements and conclusions), number series, figure completion, and English alphabetical series.General Awareness: This section includes 25 questions (Q.1 to Q.25) on diverse topics such as the Pharmacy (Amendment) Bill, 2023, Losar celebration, classical dance (Mohiniyattam performer Kanak Rele), historical acts (Government of India Act of 1919), climate zones, founders of dynasties (Mauryan), political figures (Shafiqur Rahman Barq), books by Dadabhai Naoroji, literature (The Glory of Patan), historical dates (Punjab abolishing Legislative Council), chemical compounds (curcumin in turmeric, sodium bicarbonate), music gharanas (Indore gharana founder), architecture (Pietra Dura), agriculture (Rabi season), economics (capital goods), awards (Padma Puraskars order), history (Vijayanagara kingdom dynasty), science (lycopene in tomatoes), census data (minimum literacy rate in UT), Indian Constitution (Fundamental Duties), sports (Sanjana Bathula, Women's Premier League captain), geography (Mawsynram), and international borders (India's neighbors).English Language and Comprehension: This section contains 25 questions (Q.1 to Q.25) covering spelling errors, synonyms (Ecstatic, pursue, gruelling, Energy, discern), phrasal verb errors, idiom meaning (read between the lines, a piece of cake), grammatical errors, fill in the blanks (vocabulary and parts of speech), and a five-question cloze test comprehension passage.
A question paper for the Multi-Tasking Non-Technical Staff and Havildar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024. The exam date was 07/10/2024, Shift 3. The paper is divided into three main sections:Numerical and Mathematical Ability: This section includes 20 questions (Q.1 to Q.20) covering topics such as average expenditure and income, speed and distance, age ratio, train problems, geometry (equilateral triangle and regular hexagon), income averages, corrected averages, profit and loss, simple interest, mixture and allegation, HCF and LCM, volume and melting, data interpretation via bar graph, discount, ratio of boys and girls, and data interpretation via a table of employees.Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving: This section contains 20 questions (Q.1 to Q.20) on topics like interchanging mathematical signs, coding-decoding, circular seating arrangement, mirror image, number sets analogy, figure series, syllogism (statements and conclusions), number series, figure completion, and English alphabetical series.General Awareness: This section includes 25 questions (Q.1 to Q.25) on diverse topics such as the Pharmacy (Amendment) Bill, 2023, Losar celebration, classical dance (Mohiniyattam performer Kanak Rele), historical acts (Government of India Act of 1919), climate zones, founders of dynasties (Mauryan), political figures (Shafiqur Rahman Barq), books by Dadabhai Naoroji, literature (The Glory of Patan), historical dates (Punjab abolishing Legislative Council), chemical compounds (curcumin in turmeric, sodium bicarbonate), music gharanas (Indore gharana founder), architecture (Pietra Dura), agriculture (Rabi season), economics (capital goods), awards (Padma Puraskars order), history (Vijayanagara kingdom dynasty), science (lycopene in tomatoes), census data (minimum literacy rate in UT), Indian Constitution (Fundamental Duties), sports (Sanjana Bathula, Women's Premier League captain), geography (Mawsynram), and international borders (India's neighbors).English Language and Comprehension: This section contains 25 questions (Q.1 to Q.25) covering spelling errors, synonyms (Ecstatic, pursue, gruelling, Energy, discern), phrasal verb errors, idiom meaning (read between the lines, a piece of cake), grammatical errors, fill in the blanks (vocabulary and parts of speech), and a five-question cloze test comprehension passage
A question paper for the Multi-Tasking Non-Technical Staff and Havildar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024. The exam date was 07/10/2024, Shift 2. The exam time was from 12:30 PM to 2:30 PM.The paper is divided into three main sections:Numerical and Mathematical Ability: This section includes 20 questions (Q.1 to Q.20) covering topics such as average expenditure and income, speed and distance, age ratio, train problems, geometry (equilateral triangle and regular hexagon), income averages, corrected averages, profit and loss, simple interest, mixture and allegation, HCF and LCM, volume and melting, data interpretation via bar graph, discount, ratio of boys and girls, and data interpretation via a table of employees.Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving: This section contains 20 questions (Q.1 to Q.20) on topics like interchanging mathematical signs, coding-decoding, circular seating arrangement, mirror image, number sets analogy, figure series, syllogism (statements and conclusions), number series, figure completion, and English alphabetical series.General Awareness: This section includes 25 questions (Q.1 to Q.25) on diverse topics such as the Pharmacy (Amendment) Bill, 2023, Losar celebration, classical dance (Mohiniyattam performer Kanak Rele), historical acts (Government of India Act of 1919), climate zones, founders of dynasties (Mauryan), political figures (Shafiqur Rahman Barq), books by Dadabhai Naoroji, literature (The Glory of Patan), historical dates (Punjab abolishing Legislative Council), chemical compounds (curcumin in turmeric, sodium bicarbonate), music gharanas (Indore gharana founder), architecture (Pietra Dura), agriculture (Rabi season), economics (capital goods), awards (Padma Puraskars order), history (Vijayanagara kingdom dynasty), science (lycopene in tomatoes), census data (minimum literacy rate in UT), Indian Constitution (Fundamental Duties), sports (Sanjana Bathula, Women's Premier League captain), geography (Mawsynram), and international borders (India's neighbors).English Language and Comprehension: This section contains 25 questions (Q.1 to Q.25) covering spelling errors, synonyms (Ecstatic, pursue, gruelling, Energy, discern), phrasal verb errors, idiom meaning (read between the lines, a piece of cake), grammatical errors, fill in the blanks (vocabulary and parts of speech), and a five-question cloze test comprehension passage.
A question paper for the Multi-Tasking Non-Technical Staff and Havildar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024. The exam date was 07/10/2024, Shift 2. The exam time was from 12:30 PM to 2:30 AM.The paper is divided into three main sections:Numerical and Mathematical Ability: This section includes 20 questions (Q.1 to Q.20) covering topics such as average expenditure and income, speed and distance, age ratio, train problems, geometry (equilateral triangle and regular hexagon), income averages, corrected averages, profit and loss, simple interest, mixture and allegation, HCF and LCM, volume and melting, data interpretation via bar graph, discount, ratio of boys and girls, and data interpretation via a table of employees.Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving: This section contains 20 questions (Q.1 to Q.20) on topics like interchanging mathematical signs, coding-decoding, circular seating arrangement, mirror image, number sets analogy, figure series, syllogism (statements and conclusions), number series, figure completion, and English alphabetical series.General Awareness: This section includes 25 questions (Q.1 to Q.25) on diverse topics such as the Pharmacy (Amendment) Bill, 2023, Losar celebration, classical dance (Mohiniyattam performer Kanak Rele), historical acts (Government of India Act of 1919), climate zones, founders of dynasties (Mauryan), political figures (Shafiqur Rahman Barq), books by Dadabhai Naoroji, literature (The Glory of Patan), historical dates (Punjab abolishing Legislative Council), chemical compounds (curcumin in turmeric, sodium bicarbonate), music gharanas (Indore gharana founder), architecture (Pietra Dura), agriculture (Rabi season), economics (capital goods), awards (Padma Puraskars order), history (Vijayanagara kingdom dynasty), science (lycopene in tomatoes), census data (minimum literacy rate in UT), Indian Constitution (Fundamental Duties), sports (Sanjana Bathula, Women's Premier League captain), geography (Mawsynram), and international borders (India's neighbors).English Language and Comprehension: This section contains 25 questions (Q.1 to Q.25) covering spelling errors, synonyms (Ecstatic, pursue, gruelling, Energy, discern), phrasal verb errors, idiom meaning (read between the lines, a piece of cake), grammatical errors, fill in the blanks (vocabulary and parts of speech), and a five-question cloze test comprehension passage.
A question paper for the Multi-Tasking Non-Technical Staff and Havildar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024. The exam date was 01/10/2024, Shift 2. The exam time was from 12:30 PM to 2:30 AM.The paper is divided into three main sections:Numerical and Mathematical Ability: This section includes 20 questions (Q.1 to Q.20) covering topics such as average expenditure and income, speed and distance, age ratio, train problems, geometry (equilateral triangle and regular hexagon), income averages, corrected averages, profit and loss, simple interest, mixture and allegation, HCF and LCM, volume and melting, data interpretation via bar graph, discount, ratio of boys and girls, and data interpretation via a table of employees.Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving: This section contains 20 questions (Q.1 to Q.20) on topics like interchanging mathematical signs, coding-decoding, circular seating arrangement, mirror image, number sets analogy, figure series, syllogism (statements and conclusions), number series, figure completion, and English alphabetical series.General Awareness: This section includes 25 questions (Q.1 to Q.25) on diverse topics such as the Pharmacy (Amendment) Bill, 2023, Losar celebration, classical dance (Mohiniyattam performer Kanak Rele), historical acts (Government of India Act of 1919), climate zones, founders of dynasties (Mauryan), political figures (Shafiqur Rahman Barq), books by Dadabhai Naoroji, literature (The Glory of Patan), historical dates (Punjab abolishing Legislative Council), chemical compounds (curcumin in turmeric, sodium bicarbonate), music gharanas (Indore gharana founder), architecture (Pietra Dura), agriculture (Rabi season), economics (capital goods), awards (Padma Puraskars order), history (Vijayanagara kingdom dynasty), science (lycopene in tomatoes), census data (minimum literacy rate in UT), Indian Constitution (Fundamental Duties), sports (Sanjana Bathula, Women's Premier League captain), geography (Mawsynram), and international borders (India's neighbors).English Language and Comprehension: This section contains 25 questions (Q.1 to Q.25) covering spelling errors, synonyms (Ecstatic, pursue, gruelling, Energy, discern), phrasal verb errors, idiom meaning (read between the lines, a piece of cake), grammatical errors, fill in the blanks (vocabulary and parts of speech), and a five-question cloze test comprehension passage.
A question paper for the Multi-Tasking Non-Technical Staff and Havildar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024. The exam date was 1/10/2024, Shift 1. The exam time was from 9:00 AM to 11:00 AM.The paper is divided into three main sections:Numerical and Mathematical Ability: This section includes 20 questions (Q.1 to Q.20) covering topics such as average expenditure and income, speed and distance, age ratio, train problems, geometry (equilateral triangle and regular hexagon), income averages, corrected averages, profit and loss, simple interest, mixture and allegation, HCF and LCM, volume and melting, data interpretation via bar graph, discount, ratio of boys and girls, and data interpretation via a table of employees.Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving: This section contains 20 questions (Q.1 to Q.20) on topics like interchanging mathematical signs, coding-decoding, circular seating arrangement, mirror image, number sets analogy, figure series, syllogism (statements and conclusions), number series, figure completion, and English alphabetical series.General Awareness: This section includes 25 questions (Q.1 to Q.25) on diverse topics such as the Pharmacy (Amendment) Bill, 2023, Losar celebration, classical dance (Mohiniyattam performer Kanak Rele), historical acts (Government of India Act of 1919), climate zones, founders of dynasties (Mauryan), political figures (Shafiqur Rahman Barq), books by Dadabhai Naoroji, literature (The Glory of Patan), historical dates (Punjab abolishing Legislative Council), chemical compounds (curcumin in turmeric, sodium bicarbonate), music gharanas (Indore gharana founder), architecture (Pietra Dura), agriculture (Rabi season), economics (capital goods), awards (Padma Puraskars order), history (Vijayanagara kingdom dynasty), science (lycopene in tomatoes), census data (minimum literacy rate in UT), Indian Constitution (Fundamental Duties), sports (Sanjana Bathula, Women's Premier League captain), geography (Mawsynram), and international borders (India's neighbors).English Language and Comprehension: This section contains 25 questions (Q.1 to Q.25) covering spelling errors, synonyms (Ecstatic, pursue, gruelling, Energy, discern), phrasal verb errors, idiom meaning (read between the lines, a piece of cake), grammatical errors, fill in the blanks (vocabulary and parts of speech), and a five-question cloze test comprehension passage.
A question paper for the Multi-Tasking Non-Technical Staff and Havildar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024. The exam date was 30/09/2024, Shift 3.The paper is divided into three main sections:Numerical and Mathematical Ability: This section includes 20 questions (Q.1 to Q.20) covering topics such as average expenditure and income, speed and distance, age ratio, train problems, geometry (equilateral triangle and regular hexagon), income averages, corrected averages, profit and loss, simple interest, mixture and allegation, HCF and LCM, volume and melting, data interpretation via bar graph, discount, ratio of boys and girls, and data interpretation via a table of employees.Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving: This section contains 20 questions (Q.1 to Q.20) on topics like interchanging mathematical signs, coding-decoding, circular seating arrangement, mirror image, number sets analogy, figure series, syllogism (statements and conclusions), number series, figure completion, and English alphabetical series.General Awareness: This section includes 25 questions (Q.1 to Q.25) on diverse topics such as the Pharmacy (Amendment) Bill, 2023, Losar celebration, classical dance (Mohiniyattam performer Kanak Rele), historical acts (Government of India Act of 1919), climate zones, founders of dynasties (Mauryan), political figures (Shafiqur Rahman Barq), books by Dadabhai Naoroji, literature (The Glory of Patan), historical dates (Punjab abolishing Legislative Council), chemical compounds (curcumin in turmeric, sodium bicarbonate), music gharanas (Indore gharana founder), architecture (Pietra Dura), agriculture (Rabi season), economics (capital goods), awards (Padma Puraskars order), history (Vijayanagara kingdom dynasty), science (lycopene in tomatoes), census data (minimum literacy rate in UT), Indian Constitution (Fundamental Duties), sports (Sanjana Bathula, Women's Premier League captain), geography (Mawsynram), and international borders (India's neighbors).English Language and Comprehension: This section contains 25 questions (Q.1 to Q.25) covering spelling errors, synonyms (Ecstatic, pursue, gruelling, Energy, discern), phrasal verb errors, idiom meaning (read between the lines, a piece of cake), grammatical errors, fill in the blanks (vocabulary and parts of speech), and a five-question cloze test comprehension passage.
A question paper for the Multi-Tasking Non-Technical Staff and Havildar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024. The exam date was 30/09/2024, Shift 2. The exam time was from 12:30 PM to 2:30 PM.The paper is divided into three main sections:Numerical and Mathematical Ability: This section includes 20 questions (Q.1 to Q.20) covering topics such as average expenditure and income, speed and distance, age ratio, train problems, geometry (equilateral triangle and regular hexagon), income averages, corrected averages, profit and loss, simple interest, mixture and allegation, HCF and LCM, volume and melting, data interpretation via bar graph, discount, ratio of boys and girls, and data interpretation via a table of employees.Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving: This section contains 20 questions (Q.1 to Q.20) on topics like interchanging mathematical signs, coding-decoding, circular seating arrangement, mirror image, number sets analogy, figure series, syllogism (statements and conclusions), number series, figure completion, and English alphabetical series.General Awareness: This section includes 25 questions (Q.1 to Q.25) on diverse topics such as the Pharmacy (Amendment) Bill, 2023, Losar celebration, classical dance (Mohiniyattam performer Kanak Rele), historical acts (Government of India Act of 1919), climate zones, founders of dynasties (Mauryan), political figures (Shafiqur Rahman Barq), books by Dadabhai Naoroji, literature (The Glory of Patan), historical dates (Punjab abolishing Legislative Council), chemical compounds (curcumin in turmeric, sodium bicarbonate), music gharanas (Indore gharana founder), architecture (Pietra Dura), agriculture (Rabi season), economics (capital goods), awards (Padma Puraskars order), history (Vijayanagara kingdom dynasty), science (lycopene in tomatoes), census data (minimum literacy rate in UT), Indian Constitution (Fundamental Duties), sports (Sanjana Bathula, Women's Premier League captain), geography (Mawsynram), and international borders (India's neighbors).English Language and Comprehension: This section contains 25 questions (Q.1 to Q.25) covering spelling errors, synonyms (Ecstatic, pursue, gruelling, Energy, discern), phrasal verb errors, idiom meaning (read between the lines, a piece of cake), grammatical errors, fill in the blanks (vocabulary and parts of speech), and a five-question cloze test comprehension passage.
A question paper for the Multi-Tasking Non-Technical Staff and Havildar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024. The exam date was 30/09/2024, Shift 1. The exam time was from 9:00 AM to 11:00 AM.The paper is divided into three main sections:Numerical and Mathematical Ability: This section includes 20 questions (Q.1 to Q.20) covering topics such as average expenditure and income, speed and distance, age ratio, train problems, geometry (equilateral triangle and regular hexagon), income averages, corrected averages, profit and loss, simple interest, mixture and allegation, HCF and LCM, volume and melting, data interpretation via bar graph, discount, ratio of boys and girls, and data interpretation via a table of employees.Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving: This section contains 20 questions (Q.1 to Q.20) on topics like interchanging mathematical signs, coding-decoding, circular seating arrangement, mirror image, number sets analogy, figure series, syllogism (statements and conclusions), number series, figure completion, and English alphabetical series.General Awareness: This section includes 25 questions (Q.1 to Q.25) on diverse topics such as the Pharmacy (Amendment) Bill, 2023, Losar celebration, classical dance (Mohiniyattam performer Kanak Rele), historical acts (Government of India Act of 1919), climate zones, founders of dynasties (Mauryan), political figures (Shafiqur Rahman Barq), books by Dadabhai Naoroji, literature (The Glory of Patan), historical dates (Punjab abolishing Legislative Council), chemical compounds (curcumin in turmeric, sodium bicarbonate), music gharanas (Indore gharana founder), architecture (Pietra Dura), agriculture (Rabi season), economics (capital goods), awards (Padma Puraskars order), history (Vijayanagara kingdom dynasty), science (lycopene in tomatoes), census data (minimum literacy rate in UT), Indian Constitution (Fundamental Duties), sports (Sanjana Bathula, Women's Premier League captain), geography (Mawsynram), and international borders (India's neighbors).English Language and Comprehension: This section contains 25 questions (Q.1 to Q.25) covering spelling errors, synonyms (Ecstatic, pursue, gruelling, Energy, discern), phrasal verb errors, idiom meaning (read between the lines, a piece of cake), grammatical errors, fill in the blanks (vocabulary and parts of speech), and a five-question cloze test comprehension passage.
రైల్వే_లక్ష్య_2.0_SESSSION_03_PURE_MATHS appears to be a study material for a 'Railway Group-D' target, offering "Free Youtube Classes". It contains 20 multiple-choice questions on Pure Mathematics.Content Highlights:Geometry and MensurationAlgebra and TrigonometryStatistics
𝗠𝗜𝗦𝗦𝗜𝗢𝗡_𝗝𝗔𝗪𝗔𝗡_𝐒𝐄𝐒𝐒𝐈𝐎𝐍_𝟎𝟑_𝐒𝐓𝐀𝐍𝐃𝐀𝐑𝐃_𝐆𝐊 is a General Knowledge (GK) practice set for SSC GD Aspirants from IACE. It contains multiple-choice questions in both English and Telugu.Sample Questions and Topics Covered:Awards and Recognition:The year UNESCO included Yoga in its Intangible Cultural Heritage list (Options: 2014, 2016, 2018, 2015).The year the International Booker Prize was established (Options: 2005, 1969, 1981, 1918).The field for which the 'Borlaug Award' is given (Options: Agriculture and environment, Films, Medicine, Sports).Indian History and Geography:The state with the first female Governor in independent India (Options: West Bengal, Rajasthan, Uttar Pradesh, Gujarat).Location of the Baghmara Pitcher Plant Sanctuary (Options: Meghalaya, Goa, Karnataka, Assam).Number of storeys in the Qutub Minar (Options: 5, 3, 4, 6).Location of India's first labour movement museum (Options: Kerala, Odisha, West Bengal, Karnataka).The river on whose banks the Ahilya fort was constructed in the 18th century (Options: Tapi, Kosi, Ganga, Narmada).Location of the famous Dhamek Stupa (Options: Andhra Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Himachal Pradesh).The year radio broadcasting started in India by the Radio Club of Bombay (Mumbai) (Options: 1934, 1923, 1929, 1938).Books and Authors/Freedom Fighters:Author of 'A Brief History of Time' (Options: Stephen Hawking, Albert Einstein, John Watson, Neil Degrasse Tyson).The freedom fighter who started the newspaper Al-Hilal (Options: Maulana Shaukat Ali, Maulana Abul Kalam Azad, Chaudhry Khaleequzzaman, Hakim Ajmal Khan).
This SSC GD Question Paper 2024 (Constable GD Examination 2024) held on 30/03/2024, from 9:00 AM - 10:00 AM. The paper contains four sections: General Intelligence and Reasoning, General Knowledge and General Awareness, Elementary Mathematics, and English (Part-D-English) or Hindi (Section: Part-D-Hindi).Key Information from the Paper:Exam Details:Exam Date: 30/03/2024Exam Time: 9:00 AM - 10:00 AMSubject: Constable GD Examination 2024General Knowledge and General Awareness Section Highlights:The first Indian to receive the Grand Order of the Chain of Yellow Star in Suriname in June 2023 was Droupadi Murmu.The Green Revolution in India was funded by the US and the Indian Government, along with the Ford and Rockefeller Foundation.The Green Revolution primarily focused on improving the production of wheat and rice.Nikhil Banerjee is not associated with the musical instrument Sarangi.Arthashastra is attributed to Chanakya.The Modern Periodic Table has 18 vertical columns (groups) and 7 horizontal rows (periods).The festival that is not a festival of Gujarat is the Sunburn Festival.Gopika Varma received the Sangeet Natak Akademi Award 2018 for her contribution to Mohiniyattam.Demonetisation was initiated by the Government of India in November 2016 to tackle corruption and black money, among other issues.Hindi Section Highlights:The synonym for 'सम्भवतः' (in the sentence 'सम्भवतः वह कल नहीं आएगा') is 'शायद'.The phrase 'अंडे से जन्म हुआ' (born from an egg) is referred to by the word 'अण्डज'.The phrase 'किसी सूरत में' is best expressed as 'हर हाल में' (in any case).The correct opposite (विलोम) of 'उत्थान' (progress) is 'पतन' (fall).
Title: Constable GD in CAPFs, SSF, and Rifleman GD in Assam Rifles Examination 2024 (March 7).Description: Covers the final sets in this series from March 7, 2024.Key Points:Reasoning: Circular seating for colleagues (Victor, Wendy, etc.), coding for 'VIDEO', and identifying hidden figures.General Knowledge: Questions on the literacy rate definition, the "smash" shot in sports, and the policy of Permanent Settlement.Mathematics: Includes calculating the weight of a new student added to a group and finding the total surface area of a cylinder.
Title: Constable GD in CAPFs, SSF, and Rifleman GD in Assam Rifles Examination 2024 (March 6).Description: Official papers for the March 6, 2024 exam date.Key Points:Reasoning: Coding for 'DECADE', syllogisms regarding "All Care V," and tool-user analogies (e.g., Firefighter: Hose :: Gardener: Shovel).General Knowledge: Includes the "Gadgil Formula" in the Fourth Five Year Plan, the partition of Bengal (1905), and the maximum strength of the Rajya Sabha.Mathematics: Covers income/expenditure ratios and profit percentages when no discount is given.
Title: Constable GD in CAPFs, SSF, and Rifleman GD in Assam Rifles Examination 2024 (March 5).Description: Includes shifts from March 5, 2024.Key Points:Reasoning: Dictionary ordering (e.g., 'Clamp', 'Clan'), animal habitat analogies (e.g., Bee: Beehive :: Bat: Cave), and eight-person circular seating.General Knowledge: Questions on the "Post-Mauryan" period and the Sangeet Natak Akademi Award for tribal dance.Mathematics: Solves for work completion by multiple individuals (E, F, and G) and ratios of three numbers totaling 420.
Title: Constable GD in CAPFs, SSF, and Rifleman GD in Assam Rifles Examination 2024 (March 1).Description: Exam papers for the start of March 2024.Key Points:Reasoning: Focuses on mirror images, coding with dual letter representations (e.g., 'DESK' as 'CEDERTIL'), and symbol interchanging for equations.General Knowledge: Asks about World Bank leadership in 2023, the definition of the sex ratio, and phase-one beneficiaries of the Green Revolution.Mathematics: Covers simple interest time periods and proportions.
Title: Constable GD in CAPFs, SSF, and Rifleman GD in Assam Rifles Examination 2024 (Feb 29).Description: Examination details for February 29, 2024, the leap year date.Key Points:Reasoning: Tests geographical analogies (e.g., Sun Temple: Gujarat :: Ajanta Caves: Maharashtra), blood relations, and coding for words like 'EXIST'.General Knowledge: Questions on the Khilafat Movement leadership, the tertiary/service sector, and Governor’s special addresses in the Constitution.Mathematics: Includes average of 48 numbers and reservoir emptying time using multiple pumps.
Title: Constable GD in CAPFs, SSF, and Rifleman GD in Assam Rifles Examination 2024 (Feb 28).Description: This set contains the exam papers from February 28, 2024.Key Points:Reasoning: Features pattern completion, paper folding/punching, and circular seating arrangements for five to six colleagues.General Knowledge: Includes the 2023 Republic Day chief guest and the year the Constituent Assembly of India was established.Mathematics: Covers compound interest and work efficiency (e.g., Mohan working thrice as fast as Aman).
Title: Constable GD in CAPFs, SSF, and Rifleman GD in Assam Rifles Examination 2024 (Feb 27).Description: Covers shifts from 9:00 AM, 11:30 AM, and 2:30 PM on February 27, 2024.Key Points:Reasoning: Includes mathematical operations with symbols (@, #, *), alphabetical sequencing of words like 'Reporter' and 'Relevant', and dice problems.General Knowledge: Asks about Ashoka’s inscriptions, the state famous for Dandiya-ras, and the "secondary sector" of economic activity.Mathematics: Focuses on mixture problems (acid and water ratios) and time/speed of trains.
Title: Constable GD in CAPFs, SSF, and Rifleman GD in Assam Rifles Examination 2024 (Feb 26).Description: Official question paper for the exams held on February 26, 2024.Key Points:Reasoning: Covers hidden/embedded figures, syllogisms (e.g., "No S is T"), and letter pair analogies.General Knowledge: Features history questions like Abhinav Bindra's Olympic gold and concepts like "judicial review" in India.Mathematics: Covers simple interest, percentages (e.g., 75% of 1256), and train speed calculations.
Title: Constable GD in CAPFs, SSF, and Rifleman GD in Assam Rifles Examination 2024 (Feb 24).Description: Examination conducted on February 24, 2024, across multiple shifts, including 9:00 AM – 10:00 AM and 11:30 AM – 12:30 PM.Key Points:Reasoning: Tests mirror images, logical word relations (e.g., Detective: Clues :: Scientist: Experiments), and circular seating arrangements.General Awareness: Contains questions regarding the Green Revolution and the winner of the most gold medals in the 2023 National Games.Mathematics: Includes Least Common Multiple (LCM) of prime numbers and work-rate calculations.
Title: Constable GD in CAPFs, SSF, and Rifleman GD in Assam Rifles Examination 2024 (Feb 23).Description: This paper covers the morning shift (9:00 AM - 10:00 AM) and afternoon shifts held on February 23, 2024.Key Points:Reasoning: Focuses on letter-cluster series, dictionary word sequencing, and coding-decoding (e.g., coding 'LAST' as 'PFWY')General Knowledge: Includes questions on the 2011 Census of India and the host of the 2011 ODI Cricket World Cup.Mathematics: Features problems on average weight, fourth proportionals, and discount percentages.
This document contains a collection of mathematics questions for the RRB Junior Engineer 2024 exam, organized by topic and presented by Gagan Pratap Sir. The questions are categorized from "Hard to Easy". The Table of Contents lists the following topics with their starting page numbers:Number System: Page 2L.C.M and H.C.F: Page 6Simple and Compound Interest: Page 7Discount: Page 9Ratio and Proportion: Page 10Average: Page 14Percentage: Page 16Distance, Time, and Speed: Page 18Profit and Loss: Page 21Algebraic Identites: Page 23Mensuration: Page 27Data Interpretation: Page 31Statics: Page 33For each question, the document provides the problem, multiple-choice options, the correct answer, the date the test was run (in December 2024), and the percentage of users who answered correctly ("Right") and incorrectly ("Wrong").
This document, presents a compilation of topic-wise reasoning questions for the RRB Junior Engineer 2024 exam, prepared by Gagan Pratap Sir.The document's Table of Contents includes the following topics and their starting page numbers:Seating Arrangement (Page 2)Distance & Direction (Page 5)Analogy & Classification (Page 7)Blood Relation (Page 17)Coding-Decoding (Page 19)Mathematical Operations (Page 23)Statement- Conclusion (Page 26)Series Test (Page 29)Order and Ranking (Page 34)Puzzle Test (Page 37)formation of letters (Page 40)Each question is followed by multiple-choice options, the date it was run/tested, the percentage of users who answered correctly (Right), and the correct answer (Correct Ans). For example, in the Seating Arrangement section:Question Q1 was run on 16/12/2024, with a 30.30% Right rate and a Correct Answer of D.Question Q2 was run on 17/12/2024, with a 48.53% Right rate and a Correct Answer of A.
This document, contains General Science and Awareness questions for the RRB Junior Engineer 2024 exam, categorized by topic. The Table of Contents shows the topics and their starting page numbers:Key Topics Covered (from the visible pages):Physics (Q1-Q87): Covers optics (lenses, mirrors, refraction), electricity (Ohm's law, resistance, power, series/parallel circuits), and magnetism (Fleming's rules, magnetic fields, solenoids, electric motors).Chemistry (Q1-Q98): Includes topics like pH scale, displacement reactions, homologous series, electrolysis, reactions with precipitates, properties of ionic compounds, redox reactions, compounds of carbon, ozone depletion, balancing equations, and industrial preparations (e.g., sodium hydroxide, bleaching powder).Biology (Q1-Q74): Covers reproduction (asexual and sexual in plants and animals), genetics (Mendel's laws, chromosomes, genes), ecosystems (producers, decomposers, waste), and human health (STDs, family planning).Each question includes the correct answer, the date it was run, and the percentage of users who answered correctly and incorrectly.
The document is an answer key compilation for the Railway Junior Engineer (RRB JE) 2024 examination, specifically for the CEN RRB - 03/2024. The subject covered is RRB JE DMS CMA CS MS.Exam Shifts Covered: The document includes answer keys for three shifts on December 16, 2024:Shift 1: 9:00 AM - 10:30 AMShift 2: 12:45 PM - 2:15 PMShift 3: 4:30 PM - 6:00 PMA table of contents also indicates shifts for December 17 and 18, 2024, although the content for those shifts is not fully visible.Marking Scheme and Answer Key Interpretation:Correct Answer: Carries 1 mark per question.Incorrect Answer: Carries 1/3 negative mark per question.The correct option is shown in green color with a tick icon.The option selected by the candidate is indicated on the right of the question.Content and Focus: The questions cover a range of subjects, including:General Science (Physics, Chemistry, Biology).Mathematics and Quantitative Aptitude.General Knowledge and Current Affairs.Reasoning and Logical Deduction.The document is formatted in a question-and-answer style, with the question followed by multiple-choice options and the correct answer indicated below.
A SSC GD Constable Exam Paper standard format of 80 objective-type questions across four sections: General Intelligence & Reasoning, General Knowledge & General Awareness, Elementary Mathematics, and English/Hindi.Difficulty Level: Rated as Easy to Moderate, with the Mathematics and Reasoning sections often described as "Easy" for well-prepared candidates.General Awareness Highlights:Awards & History: Included questions on the Ratan Tata Award and the Harappan Civilization.Reasoning & Math Topics:Series: Questions on number series (e.g., 118, 113, 108, 103, 98, 93, ?).Blood Relations: Complex expressions like finding how X is related to Y in 'Spatial Reasoning: Paper folding/unfolding and finding the number opposite a specific face on a dice.Language Section: Common topics across all shifts included Idioms (Muhavare), synonyms/antonyms, and reading comprehension passages.
A SSC GD Constable Exam Paper standard format of 80 objective-type questions across four sections: General Intelligence & Reasoning, General Knowledge & General Awareness, Elementary Mathematics, and English/Hindi.Difficulty Level: Remained consistent at an Easy to Moderate level.General Awareness Topics: Focused on the Indian Constitution, geography of India and neighboring countries, and scientific research.Reasoning Highlights:Coding-Decoding: Specific questions such as coding "TOWARD" as "962147" and finding the code for "WARRANT".Logic: Included Syllogism problems (e.g., "No mountain is desert") and interchanging mathematical signs to correct equations.Mathematics: Featured questions on Train problems, Boat & Stream, Mensuration, and Simple/Compound Interest.
A SSC GD Exam Paper standard format of 80 objective-type questions across four sections: General Intelligence & Reasoning, General Knowledge & General Awareness, Elementary Mathematics, and English/Hindi.Difficulty Level: Generally rated as Easy to Moderate.General Awareness Highlights:Current Affairs: Included the appointment of Jaya Varma Sinha as the first female Chairperson of the Railway Board.Heritage: Questions on Santiniketan being recognized as a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 2023.Polity: Articles 24 (prohibition of child labor) and 34 (martial law restrictions) were featured.History: Included the Second Battle of Panipat (1556) and the Battle of Buxar (1764).Reasoning & Math: Covered circular seating arrangements, coding-decoding, HCF/LCM, and Profit & Loss.
1. New Criminal LawsThe guide prioritizes the 2023 transition from colonial-era laws to new frameworks:BNS (Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita): Defines "Organized Crime" under Section 111 and "Mob Lynching" under Section 103. It replaces the term "Sedition" with acts endangering sovereignty under Section 152.BNSS (Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita): Sets strict timelines, such as delivering judgments within 45 days after arguments conclude.BSA (Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam): Elevates electronic records (like emails) to the status of Primary Evidence.2. Space, Defense, and TechnologyThis section highlights India's self-reliance in aerospace and maritime missions:Space Exploration: Mentions the NGLV (Soorya) rocket, the Gaganyaan mission featuring the half-humanoid robot Vyommitra, and the SPADEX docking experiment.Deep Sea: Highlights MATSYA 6000, a manned submersible for the Deep Ocean Mission.Defense: Discusses the Astra missile, an indigenous Air-to-Air Beyond Visual Range (BVR) weapon.3. Polity and ConstitutionThe guide covers landmark legal benchmarks and administrative structures:Amendments: The 106th Amendment Act (Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam) provides 33% reservation for women in legislative bodies.Supreme Court Powers: Article 142 is noted for the court's power to provide "Complete Justice".Case Law: The K.S. Puttaswamy Case (2017) is cited as the landmark judgment declaring the Right to Privacy a Fundamental Right.4. Economy and EnvironmentKey government schemes and ecological standards are detailed.Schemes: Includes PM-PRANAM (reducing chemical fertilizers), PM Vishwakarma (supporting artisans), and Amrit Dharohar (wetland conservation)Economic Concepts: Explains the Lorenz Curve (income inequality), the Phillips Curve (inflation vs. unemployment), and the Twin Balance Sheet problem.Sustainability: Details the Global Biofuel Alliance and the Miyawaki technique for rapid urban afforestation.5. Heritage, Sports, and ScienceCulture: Highlights tribal traditions like Medaram Jatara (Koya Tribe) and GI-tagged arts such as Sohrai-Khovar and Chikankari.Sports: Covers technical rules, such as the Timed Out rule in cricket and the height of a badminton net, while noting new inclusions like T20 Cricket for the 2028 LA Olympics.General Science: Covers basics like the chemical formula for baking soda (NaHCO3), the principle of Total Internal Reflection in optical fibers, and Vitamin B12 deficiency.6. Computer AwarenessThe final section addresses digital literacyHardware & Networking: Explains the Network Layer (OSI Model), IPv6 addresses (128-bit), and the history of Integrated Circuits.Cybersecurity: Defines Ransomware and identifies AIRAWAT as a top Indian supercomputer
AP EAPCET Engineering (2024) - Question Paper OverviewEntrance Exam Name: Andhra Pradesh Engineering, Agriculture and Pharmacy Common Entrance Test (AP EAPCET). Paper Name: ENGINEERING 23rd May 2024 Shift 1. Exam Date & Session: 23rd May 2024, Shift 1. Conducting Authority: Andhra Pradesh State Council of Higher Education (APSCHE).Exam Structure & MarksTotal Marks: The examination is conducted for a total of 160 marks.Duration: Candidates are allotted 180 minutes to complete the paper.Total Questions: The paper consists of 160 questions.Subject Sections:Mathematics: 80 Questions.Physics: 40 Questions.Chemistry: 40 Questions.Marking Scheme: Correct options are highlighted in green with a checkmark, while incorrect options are shown in red.Short DescriptionThis document provides the official question paper and answer key for the AP EAPCET 2024 Engineering stream, held during the first shift on May 23rd. It is an essential study resource for students aiming to secure undergraduate engineering admissions in Andhra Pradesh, offering a direct look at the 2024 examination's standards and formatting.The paper serves as a comprehensive evaluation of a candidate's proficiency in three foundational areas:Mathematics: 80 questions covering essential topics such as algebra, trigonometry, and calculus.Physics: 40 questions focusing on core concepts including mechanics, thermodynamics, and electromagnetism.Chemistry: 40 questions testing knowledge across organic, inorganic, and physical chemistry.
AP EAPCET Engineering (2024) - Question Paper OverviewEntrance Exam Name: Andhra Pradesh Engineering, Agriculture and Pharmacy Common Entrance Test (AP EAPCET). Paper Name: ENGINEERING 22nd May 2024 Shift 2. Exam Date & Session: 22nd May 2024, Shift 2. Conducting Authority: Andhra Pradesh State Council of Higher Education (APSCHE).Exam Structure & MarksTotal Marks: The examination is conducted for a total of 160 marks.Duration: Candidates are allotted 180 minutes to complete the paper.Total Questions: The paper consists of 160 questions.Subject Sections:Mathematics: 80 Questions.Physics: 40 Questions.Chemistry: 40 Questions.Marking Scheme: Correct options are highlighted in green with a checkmark, while incorrect options are shown in red.Short DescriptionThis document is the official question paper and answer key for the AP EAPCET 2024 Engineering stream, held during the second shift on May 22nd. It serves as a comprehensive study tool for students aiming for undergraduate engineering admissions in Andhra Pradesh, providing a direct look at the exam's standards and formatting.The paper rigorously tests candidates across three major academic areas:Mathematics: 80 questions covering essential topics such as functions, matrices, and algebraic equations.Physics: 40 questions focusing on foundational concepts like units and measurements, kinematics, and physical laws.Chemistry: 40 questions evaluating knowledge of atomic structure, chemical bonding, and periodic classification.
AP EAPCET Engineering (2024) - Question Paper OverviewEntrance Exam Name: Andhra Pradesh Engineering, Agriculture and Pharmacy Common Entrance Test (AP EAPCET). Paper Name: ENGINEERING 22nd May 2024 Shift 1. Exam Date & Session: 22nd May 2024, Shift 1. Conducting Authority: Andhra Pradesh State Council of Higher Education (APSCHE).Exam Structure & MarksTotal Marks: The examination is conducted for a total of 160 marks.Duration: Candidates are allotted 180 minutes to complete the paper.Total Questions: The paper consists of 160 questions.Subject Sections:Mathematics: 80 Questions.Physics: 40 Questions.Chemistry: 40 Questions.Marking Scheme: Correct options are highlighted in green with a checkmark, while incorrect options are shown in red.Short DescriptionThis document is the official question paper and answer key for the AP EAPCET 2024 Engineering stream, held during the first shift on May 22nd. It serves as an essential resource for students aiming for undergraduate engineering admissions in Andhra Pradesh, providing a direct look at the 2024 examination's standards and formatting.The paper serves as a comprehensive evaluation of a candidate's proficiency in three foundational areas:Mathematics: 80 questions covering diverse topics such as functions, matrices, trigonometry, and algebraic equations.Physics: 40 questions focusing on core concepts including units and measurements, kinematics, and the physical world.Chemistry: 40 questions testing knowledge across atomic structure, chemical bonding, and periodic classification.
AP EAPCET Engineering (2024) - Question Paper OverviewEntrance Exam Name: Andhra Pradesh Engineering, Agriculture and Pharmacy Common Entrance Test (AP EAPCET). Paper Name: ENGINEERING 21st May 2024 Shift 2. Exam Date & Session: 21st May 2024, Shift 2. Conducting Authority: Andhra Pradesh State Council of Higher Education (APSCHE).Exam Structure & MarksTotal Marks: The examination is conducted for a total of 160 marks.Duration: Candidates are allotted 180 minutes to complete the paper.Total Questions: The paper consists of 160 questions.Subject Sections:Mathematics: 80 Questions.Physics: 40 Questions.Chemistry: 40 Questions.Marking Scheme: Correct options are highlighted in green with a checkmark, while incorrect options are shown in red.Short DescriptionThis document provides the official question paper and answer key for the AP EAPCET 2024 Engineering stream, held during the second shift on May 21st. It is an indispensable study resource for students preparing for undergraduate engineering admissions in Andhra Pradesh, offering a direct look at the 2024 examination's standards and formatting.The paper serves as a comprehensive evaluation of a candidate's proficiency in three foundational areas:Mathematics: 80 questions covering diverse topics such as set theory, real-valued functions, inverse trigonometric functions, and calculus.Physics: 40 questions focusing on core concepts including units and measurements, kinematics, and the physical world.Chemistry: 40 questions testing knowledge across atomic structure, chemical bonding, and periodic classification.
AP EAPCET Engineering (2024) - Question Paper OverviewEntrance Exam Name: Andhra Pradesh Engineering, Agriculture and Pharmacy Common Entrance Test (AP EAPCET). Paper Name: ENGINEERING 21st May 2024 Shift 1. Exam Date & Session: 21st May 2024, Shift 1. Conducting Authority: Andhra Pradesh State Council of Higher Education (APSCHE).Exam Structure & MarksTotal Marks: The examination is conducted for a total of 160 marks.Duration: Candidates are allotted 180 minutes to complete the paper.Total Questions: The paper consists of 160 questions.Subject Sections:Mathematics: 80 Questions.Physics: 40 Questions.Chemistry: 40 Questions.Marking Scheme: Correct options are highlighted in green with a checkmark, while incorrect options are shown in red.Short DescriptionThis document is the official question paper and answer key for the AP EAPCET 2024 Engineering stream, held during the first shift on May 21st. It serves as a vital preparation tool for students aspiring to secure undergraduate engineering seats in Andhra Pradesh.The paper provides a comprehensive evaluation across three core academic areas:Mathematics: 80 questions covering essential topics such as functions, mathematical induction, matrices, and complex numbers.Physics: 40 questions focusing on foundational concepts like units and measurements, kinematics, and the physical world.Chemistry: 40 questions testing knowledge in atomic structure, classification of elements, and chemical bonding.
AP EAPCET Engineering (2024) - Question Paper OverviewEntrance Exam Name: Andhra Pradesh Engineering, Agriculture and Pharmacy Common Entrance Test (AP EAPCET). Paper Name: ENGINEERING 20th May 2024 Shift 2. Exam Date & Session: 20th May 2024, Shift 2. Conducting Authority: Andhra Pradesh State Council of Higher Education (APSCHE)Exam Structure & Mark:Total Marks: The examination is conducted for a total of 160 marks.Duration: Candidates are allotted 180 minutes to complete the paper.Total Questions: The paper consists of 160 questions.Subject Sections: Mathematics: 80 Questions.Physics: 40 Questions.Chemistry: 40 Questions.Marking Scheme: Correct options are highlighted in green with a checkmark, while incorrect options are shown in red.Short DescriptionThis document serves as the official question paper and answer key for the AP EAPCET 2024 Engineering stream, conducted during the second shift on May 20th. It is a vital resource for students seeking undergraduate engineering admissions in Andhra Pradesh, providing a clear benchmark for the current exam standards and question styles.The paper offers a comprehensive evaluation of candidate knowledge in three core areas:Mathematics: Features 80 questions covering foundational and advanced topics such as functions, matrices, trigonometry, and algebraic equations.Physics: Includes 40 questions focused on physical measurements, kinematics, and the principles of the physical world.Chemistry: Contains 40 questions testing proficiency in atomic structure, chemical bonding, and periodic classification.
AP EAPCET Engineering (2024) - Question Paper OverviewEntrance Exam Name: Andhra Pradesh Engineering, Agriculture and Pharmacy Common Entrance Test (AP EAPCET). Paper Name: ENGINEERING 20th May 2024 Shift 1. Exam Date & Session: 20th May 2024, Shift 1. Conducting Authority: Andhra Pradesh State Council of Higher Education (APSCHE).Exam Structure & MarksTotal Marks: The examination is conducted for a total of 160 marks.Duration: Candidates are allotted 180 minutes to complete the paper.Total Questions: The paper consists of 160 questions.Subject Sections:Mathematics: 80 Questions.Physics: 40 Questions.Chemistry: 40 Questions.Marking Scheme: Correct options are highlighted in green with a checkmark, while incorrect options are shown in red with an "x" icon.Short DescriptionThis document is the official question paper and answer key for the AP EAPCET 2024 Engineering stream, held during the first shift on May 20th. It serves as a comprehensive study tool for students aiming for undergraduate engineering admissions in Andhra Pradesh, providing a direct look at the exam's standards and formatting.The paper rigorously tests candidates across three major academic areas:Mathematics: 80 questions covering essential topics such as functions, matrices, complex numbers, theory of equations, and trigonometry.Physics: 40 questions focusing on physical world concepts, units and measurements, and classical mechanics.Chemistry: 40 questions evaluating knowledge of atomic structure, periodic classification, chemical bonding, and state of matter
AP EAPCET Engineering (2024) - Question Paper OverviewEntrance Exam Name: Andhra Pradesh Engineering, Agriculture and Pharmacy Common Entrance Test (AP EAPCET). Paper Name: ENGINEERING 19th May 2024 Shift 2. Exam Date & Session: 19th May 2024, Shift 2. Conducting Authority: Andhra Pradesh State Council of Higher Education (APSCHE).Exam Structure & MarksTotal Marks: The examination is conducted for a total of 160 marks.Duration: Candidates are allotted 180 minutes (3 hours) to complete the paper.Total Questions: The paper consists of 160 questions.Subject Sections:Mathematics: 80 Questions.Physics: 40 Questions.Chemistry: 40 Questions.Marking Scheme: Correct options are highlighted in green with a checkmark, while incorrect options are shown in red with an "x" icon.Short DescriptionThis document provides the official question paper and answer key for the AP EAPCET 2024 Engineering stream, held during the second shift on May 19th. It is a vital study resource for students aiming to secure admission into undergraduate engineering programs across Andhra Pradesh.The paper offers a detailed assessment of student proficiency across three core technical subjects:Mathematics: Includes 80 questions covering topics such as algebra, trigonometry, vector algebra, and calculus.Physics: Features 40 questions focusing on units and measurements, kinematics, laws of motion, and work-energy-power.Chemistry: Contains 40 questions testing knowledge in atomic structure, classification of elements, chemical bonding, and states of matter.
AP EAPCET Engineering (2024) - Question Paper OverviewEntrance Exam Name: Andhra Pradesh Engineering, Agriculture and Pharmacy Common Entrance Test (AP EAPCET). Paper Name: ENGINEERING 18th May 2024 Shift 1. Exam Date & Session: 18th May 2024, Shift 1. Conducting Authority: Andhra Pradesh State Council of Higher Education (APSCHE).Exam Structure & MarksTotal Marks: The examination is conducted for a total of 160 marks.Duration: Candidates are allotted 180 minutes to complete the paper.Total Questions: The paper consists of 160 questions.Subject Sections:Mathematics: 80 Questions.Physics: 40 Questions.Chemistry: 40 Questions.Marking Scheme: Correct options are highlighted in green, while incorrect options are shown in red.Short DescriptionThis document is the official question paper and answer key for the AP EAPCET 2024 Engineering stream, conducted during the first shift on May 18th. It is a critical resource for students preparing for one of Andhra Pradesh's most competitive entrance exams for undergraduate engineering admissions.The paper provides a comprehensive evaluation of a candidate's proficiency in three foundational areas:Mathematics: Features 80 questions covering diverse topics such as set theory, complex numbers, coordinate geometry, and calculus.Physics: Focuses on core concepts including mechanics, thermodynamics, electromagnetism, and modern physics.Chemistry: Tests knowledge across organic, inorganic, and physical chemistry, adhering to the standard intermediate syllabus.This paper is highly recommended for aspirants to understand the recent trends in question difficulty, chapter-wise weightage, and the specific exam pattern followed by APSCHE in the 2024 cycle
AP PGECET Electrical Engineering (2021) - Question Paper OverviewExam Name: Andhra Pradesh Post Graduate Engineering Common Entrance Test (AP PGECET). Subject: Electrical Engineering. Exam Date & Session: 28th September 2021, Shift 2. Conducting Authority: Andhra Pradesh State Council of Higher Education (APSCHE).Exam Structure & MarksTotal Marks: The exam is conducted for a total of 120 marks.Total Questions: There are 120 questions in the paper.Marking Scheme: Correct options are indicated in green with a checkmark, while incorrect options are shown in red.Response Features: The paper includes options to "Mark as Answered" and "Mark for Review".Short DescriptionThis document contains the official question paper and answer key for the AP PGECET 2021 Electrical Engineering entrance exam. It is an essential study tool for engineering graduates preparing for postgraduate technical admissions in Andhra Pradesh, providing a detailed look at the examination standards and the technical topics prioritized during the 2021 session.The paper evaluates candidates on a broad range of Electrical Engineering and mathematical subjects, including:Circuit Analysis: Determining resistance values and analyzing electrical network parameters.Engineering Mathematics: Solving partial differential equations (identifying parabolic equations) and analyzing probability density functions.Probability & Statistics: Problems involving normal distributions, standard deviations, and cumulative distribution tables.Technical Core: Comprehensive coverage of the Electrical Engineering syllabus, including power systems, machines, and control theory.
AP PGECET Electrical Engineering (2022) - Question Paper OverviewExam Name: Andhra Pradesh Post Graduate Engineering Common Entrance Test (AP PGECET). Subject: Electrical Engineering. Exam Date & Session: 19th July 2022, Shift 2. Conducting Authority: Andhra Pradesh State Council of Higher Education (APSCHE).Exam Structure & Mark:Total Marks: The exam is conducted for a total of 120 marks.Total Questions: There are 120 questions in the paper.Marking Scheme: Correct options are indicated in green with a checkmark, while incorrect options are shown in red.Duration: The exam duration is 120 minutes.Short DescriptionThis document contains the official question paper and answer key for the AP PGECET 2022 Electrical Engineering entrance exam. It serves as a critical study resource for engineering graduates aiming for postgraduate technical admissions in Andhra Pradesh, providing insight into the examination's standard and the specific technical competencies tested during the 2022 session.The paper rigorously evaluates candidates on core Electrical Engineering subjects and advanced mathematics, including:Complex Variables: Tasks such as evaluating residues at singularities and solving complex integrations using Cauchy's integral formula.Probability & Statistics: Problems involving random selection (e.g., drawing cards from numbered boxes) and calculating probabilities based on specific criteria.Technical Core: Extensive coverage of topics across the Electrical Engineering syllabus, including power systems, control theory, and electrical machines.
AP PGECET Electrical Engineering (2023) - Question Paper OverviewExam Name: Andhra Pradesh Post Graduate Engineering Common Entrance Test (AP PGECET). Subject: Electrical Engineering. Exam Date & Session: 29th May 2023, Shift 2. Conducting Authority: Andhra Pradesh State Council of Higher Education (APSCHE).Exam Structure & Marks:Total Marks: The exam is conducted for a total of 120 marks.Total Questions: There are 120 questions in the paper.Marking Scheme: Correct options are indicated in green with a checkmark, while incorrect options are shown in red.Duration: The exam is designed for a specific professional duration (standard PGECET time).Short DescriptionThis document contains the official question paper and answer key for the AP PGECET 2023 Electrical Engineering entrance exam. It serves as a critical study resource for engineering graduates aiming for postgraduate technical admissions in Andhra Pradesh, providing insight into the examination's standard and the specific technical competencies tested during the 2023 session.The paper rigorously evaluates candidates on core Electrical Engineering subjects and advanced mathematics, including:Complex Variables: Evaluating residues at singularities and solving complex integrations such as contour integrals.Probability & Statistics: Problems involving fair coin tosses, probability of odd-numbered tosses, and geometric distribution concepts.Technical Core: Extensive coverage of topics across the Electrical Engineering syllabus, testing fundamental knowledge and problem-solving skills in power systems, machines, and electronics.
AP EAPCET Engineering (2022) - Question Paper OverviewEntrance Exam Name: Andhra Pradesh Engineering, Agriculture and Pharmacy Common Entrance Test (AP EAPCET). Paper Name: July 2022 ENGINEERING 04th Shift 1. Exam Date & Session: 4th July 2022, Shift 1. Conducting Authority: Andhra Pradesh State Council of Higher Education (APSCHE).Exam Structure & MarksTotal Marks: The examination is conducted for a total of 160 marks.Duration: Candidates are allotted 180 minutes (3 hours) to complete the paper.Subject Sections:Mathematics: 80 Questions (80 Marks).Physics: 40 Questions (40 Marks).Chemistry: 40 Questions (40 Marks).Marking Scheme: Correct options are highlighted in green with a checkmark, while incorrect options are shown in red.Short DescriptionThis document provides the official question paper and answer key for the AP EAPCET 2022 Engineering stream, held during the first shift on July 4th. It serves as a vital study resource for students aiming to secure admission into undergraduate engineering programs across Andhra Pradesh, offering a direct look at the examination's standards and formatting.The paper offers a detailed assessment of student proficiency across three core technical subjects:Mathematics: 80 questions covering essential topics such as real-valued functions, complex numbers, matrices, and trigonometry.Physics: 40 questions focusing on core concepts including units and measurements, kinematics, and the laws of motion.Chemistry: 40 questions testing knowledge across atomic structure, periodic classification, and chemical bonding.
AP PGECET Electrical Engineering (2024) - Question Paper OverviewExam Name: Andhra Pradesh Post Graduate Engineering Common Entrance Test (AP PGECET). Subject: Electrical Engineering. Exam Date & Session: 30th May 2024, Shift 2. Conducting Authority: Andhra Pradesh State Council of Higher Education (APSCHE).Exam Structure & MarksTotal Marks: The exam is conducted for a total of 120 marks.Total Questions: There are 120 questions in the paper.Marking Scheme: Correct options are indicated in green with a checkmark, while incorrect options are shown in red.Calculator: No calculator is allowed during the session.Short DescriptionThis document contains the official question paper and answer key for the AP PGECET 2024 Electrical Engineering entrance exam. It serves as a critical study resource for engineering graduates aiming for postgraduate technical admissions in Andhra Pradesh, providing insight into the examination's standard and the specific technical competencies tested during the 2024 session.The paper rigorously evaluates candidates on core Electrical Engineering subjects and advanced mathematics, including:Circuit Analysis: Tasks such as determining temperature rise based on resistance changes and calculating reactive power in AC circuits.Electrical Machines: Problems involving DC series motors, synchronous motor excitation, and transformer loss calculations at varying loads.Power Systems: Coverage of surge impedance loading (SIL), voltage regulation, and incremental cost characteristics for economic operation.Control Systems: Analysis using state-space methods, Nyquist plots, and Bode magnitude plots to determine system stability.Engineering Mathematics: Evaluating analytic functions, regression lines, and conditional probability.This paper is an essential resource for students preparing for state-level postgraduate entrance exams, offering a clear view of the difficulty level and subject weighting for the 2024 cycle.
POLYCET 2016 Old Question Paper - OverviewExam Name: State Board of Technical Education and Training Polytechnic Common Entrance Test (POLYCET). Year: 2016. Conducting Authority: State Board of Technical Education and Training (SBTET).Exam Structure & Marks:Total Marks: The exam is conducted for a total of 120 marks.Duration: Candidates are allotted 2 hours (120 minutes) to complete the paper.Question Format: The paper follows an objective-type format suitable for OMR sheet answering.Subject Sections:Section-I: MathematicsSection-II: PhysicsSection-III: ChemistryShort DescriptionThis document is the official old question paper for POLYCET 2016. It serves as a vital preparation tool for students aspiring to secure admission into diploma-level engineering and non-engineering courses. The paper provides a balanced assessment across three core technical foundations:Mathematics: Covers 60 questions on topics such as Number Systems (LCM/HCF), Polynomials, Linear Equations, Trigonometry, and Statistics.Physics: Focuses on fundamental principles including Heat (Condensation/Specific Heat), Light (Reflection/Refraction), and Electricity (Drift Velocity/Resistance).Chemistry: Tests knowledge in Chemical Reactions, Acids and Bases (pH values), Atomic Structure (Quantum Numbers), and Periodic Classification.